Shock Treatment
Shock Medications
Shock Random
Shock Nursing Care
Shock Assessment
100

A nurse is caring for a patient in hypovolemic shock due to severe bleeding. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?

A. Administer intravenous fluids
B. Monitor urine output
C. Place the patient in a high Fowler’s position
D. Obtain a blood sample for laboratory tests

Answer: A. Administer intravenous fluids


Rationale: Restoring fluid volume is the priority in hypovolemic shock to improve perfusion and prevent organ failure.

100

A nurse is caring for a patient in anaphylactic shock. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Antihistamines
D. Corticosteroids

Answer: B. Epinephrine


Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps to constrict blood vessels, relax airway muscles, and reduce swelling.

100

A nurse is assessing a patient in anaphylactic shock. Which finding is the most concerning?

A. Hives and facial swelling

B. Blood pressure of 82/50 mmHg

C. Heart rate of 120 bpm

D. Stridor and difficulty breathing

Answer: D. Stridor and difficulty breathing


Rationale: Airway compromise is the most life-threatening symptom of anaphylactic shock. Immediate intervention with epinephrine is required.

100

A patient asks the nurse what a pulmonary artery catheter is. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

A. "It is a device used to measure the pressure inside your lungs."
B. "It is a tube inserted into the heart to monitor blood flow and heart function."
C. "It is a catheter placed in your urinary system to help measure kidney function."
D. "It is a type of intravenous line that helps deliver fluids directly into the bloodstream."

Correct Answer: B. "It is a tube inserted into the heart to monitor blood flow and heart function."

Rationale:
A pulmonary artery catheter (also known as a Swan-Ganz catheter) is used to measure pressures in the heart and lungs, assess cardiac output, and help guide treatment in critically ill patients, particularly those with heart or lung problems. It is inserted through a vein and threaded into the pulmonary artery to monitor hemodynamic status.

100

A patient presents with chest pain. What does this most likely indicate?

A. Ongoing ischemia
B. A panic attack
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
D. Costochondritis

Correct Answer: A. Ongoing ischemia

Rationale:
Chest pain, especially if it is persistent or severe, is often a sign of ongoing ischemia, which refers to a lack of adequate blood flow to the heart muscle. This can be caused by conditions such as acute coronary syndrome (e.g., myocardial infarction or unstable angina). While other conditions such as GERD, costochondritis, or panic attacks can cause chest pain, the possibility of ischemia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent serious complications like heart attack.

200

A patient with pulmonary embolism develops obstructive shock. Which of the following is the most critical intervention for the nurse to perform?

A. Administer intravenous fluids
B. Administer thrombolytic therapy to dissolve the clot
C. Increase the patient’s oxygen supply
D. Give a vasopressor to raise blood pressure

Answer: B. Administer thrombolytic therapy to dissolve the clot


Rationale: In obstructive shock due to pulmonary embolism, the primary goal is to dissolve or remove the clot to restore normal circulation.

200

A nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock with low cardiac output. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer to increase heart contractility?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Dobutamine
C. Dopamine
D. Nitroglycerin

Answer: B. Dobutamine


Rationale: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication that strengthens the heart's contractions and improves cardiac output in patients with cardiogenic shock.

200

A nurse is explaining cardiogenic shock to a student nurse. Which statement by the student requires correction?

A. "Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs."
B. "A common cause of cardiogenic shock is a severe myocardial infarction."
C. "Vasodilation is the main cause of cardiogenic shock."
D. "Patients in cardiogenic shock may have pulmonary congestion due to fluid backup."

Answer: C. "Vasodilation is the main cause of cardiogenic shock."


Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump effectively, not by widespread vasodilation, which is seen in distributive shock (e.g., septic or anaphylactic shock).



200

A patient is being prepared for insertion of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). Which of the following statements is correct regarding the function and placement of the IABP?

A. The IABP is placed through the femoral artery sheath and filled with oxygen.
B. The IABP inflates during systole to reduce the workload of the heart.
C. The IABP improves coronary artery perfusion by inflating during diastole.
D. The IABP sits just proximal to the left subclavian artery.

Correct Answer: C. The IABP improves coronary artery perfusion by inflating during diastole.

Rationale:

  • The IABP is placed through the femoral artery sheath and is filled with helium, not oxygen, to allow for easy inflation and deflation.
  • The balloon inflates during diastole, helping to increase left ventricular volume and coronary artery perfusion, which reduces the heart's workload and improves blood output.
  • The balloon is positioned just distal to the left subclavian artery to optimize the perfusion of coronary arteries.
200

An elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level in a patient is most indicative of which of the following conditions?

A. Fluid retention
B. Volume overload
C. Hypertension
D. Hypovolemia

Correct Answer: B. Volume overload

300

A patient arrives at the emergency department with severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation, and hypotension. The provider suspects a tension pneumothorax. Which intervention is most likely to be performed as an initial treatment?

A. A needle will be inserted into the 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line

B. Embolectomy

C. Pericardiocentesis

D. A needle will be inserted underneath the xiphoid process

Correct Answer: A. A needle will be inserted into the 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line

Rationale:
Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate decompression. A needle thoracostomy (needle decompression) is performed by inserting a large-bore needle into the 2nd intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line to relieve trapped air and reduce pressure in the pleural space.

  • B. An embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove an embolus, typically for pulmonary embolism, not tension pneumothorax.

  • C. Pericardiocentesis is performed to drain fluid from the pericardial sac, usually for cardiac tamponade, not pneumothorax.

  • D. A needle inserted underneath the xiphoid process is used in pericardiocentesis, not for treating pneumothorax.

300

A patient in septic shock is being treated with norepinephrine and dobutamine. The nurse understands that the primary reason for administering norepinephrine in this patient is to:

A. Increase heart contractility and improve cardiac output
B. Decrease systemic vascular resistance and reduce blood pressure
C. Constrict blood vessels to increase blood pressure
D. Relieve airway constriction and improve oxygenation

Answer: C. Constrict blood vessels to increase blood pressure


Rationale: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor (adrenergic drug) that constricts blood vessels by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, which helps increase blood pressure in patients with shock, particularly in septic shock where there is vasodilation. Dobutamine, which is an inotrope, would be used to increase heart contractility and improve cardiac output (Choice A), but norepinephrine specifically raises blood pressure.

300

A patient in septic shock is prescribed hydrocortisone. What is the primary reason for administering this medication?

A. To aid in the body's response to antibiotics
B. To decrease inflammation
C. To improve red blood cell production
D. To aid in the body's response to vasopressors

Correct Answer: D. To aid in the body's response to vasopressors

Rationale: In septic shock, hydrocortisone is used to help restore vascular tone and improve the effectiveness of vasopressors like norepinephrine. It works by addressing adrenal insufficiency, which can occur in prolonged septic shock, thereby supporting blood pressure stabilization. While corticosteroids also have anti-inflammatory effects, their primary role in septic shock management is to enhance the body's response to vasopressors.

300

A patient is in septic shock. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

A. Administering antibiotics
B. Starting IV therapy
C. Administering vasoconstrictors
D. Collecting cultures

Correct Answer: B. Starting IV therapy

Rationale: In septic shock, the first priority is fluid resuscitation with IV fluids to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. This helps stabilize blood pressure and prevent organ failure. While obtaining cultures and administering antibiotics are crucial steps, fluids must be given first to support circulation. Vasoconstrictors (vasopressors) may be needed if fluid resuscitation alone is insufficient to maintain blood pressure.

300

An increase in pulmonary artery pressure is most commonly an indication of which of the following conditions?

A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D. Pulmonary embolism


Correct Answer: B. Left-sided heart failure

Rationale:
An increase in pulmonary artery pressure usually indicates a problem with the left side of the heart (e.g., left-sided heart failure) because the left side of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the systemic circulation. If the left side of the heart cannot effectively pump blood, it causes a backup of blood into the lungs, increasing pressure in the pulmonary arteries. Lung diseases (such as COPD or pulmonary embolism) can also lead to increased pulmonary artery pressure by affecting the pulmonary vasculature, but left-sided heart failure is the most common cause.

400

3. Which interventions are appropriate when treating a patient with cardiogenic shock? (Select all that apply.)

A. Administer intravenous fluids cautiously to prevent overload
B. Administer inotropes to improve cardiac contractility
C. Administer high-dose vasopressors to improve blood pressure
D. Monitor for signs of pulmonary edema and administer diuretics if necessary
E. Provide oxygen therapy to improve tissue oxygenation

Correct Answers: A. Administer intravenous fluids cautiously to prevent overload, B. Administer inotropes to improve cardiac contractility, D. Monitor for signs of pulmonary edema and administer diuretics if necessary, E. Provide oxygen therapy to improve tissue oxygenation

400

A patient is experiencing anaphylactic shock. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (Select all that apply.)

A. Bronchodilators
B. Antipyretics
C. Epinephrine IM
D. Colloids
E. H1 and H2 antagonists
F. Corticosteroids

Correct Answers: A. Bronchodilators, C. Epinephrine IM, E. H1 and H2 antagonists, F. Corticosteroids

Rationale:

  • Epinephrine IM (C): The first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, IM epinephrine (usually in the vastus lateralis) helps rapidly reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and hypotension.
  • Bronchodilators (A): Albuterol may be given to help relieve bronchospasms and improve airflow.
  • H1 and H2 antagonists (E): Diphenhydramine (H1 blocker) and ranitidine/famotidine (H2 blockers) help block histamine-mediated reactions.
  • Corticosteroids (F): Reduce inflammation and help prevent biphasic reactions (delayed recurrence of symptoms).
400

4. Which of the following are typical findings in cardiogenic shock? (Select all that apply.)

A. Low cardiac output
B. Elevated central venous pressure (CVP)
C. Pulmonary congestion
D. Cool, clammy skin
E. Warm, dry skin

Correct Answers: A. Low cardiac output, B. Elevated central venous pressure (CVP), C. Pulmonary congestion, D. Cool, clammy skin

400

A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and their temperature increases from 36.5°C to 37.5°C, 15 minutes after administration. What should the nurse plan on implementing?

A. Discontinue the transfusion and administer antipyretics
B. Monitor the patient’s vital signs and continue the transfusion at the same rate
C. Administer PRN antipyretics and monitor the patient closely
D. Discontinue the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider immediately


Correct Answer: C. Administer PRN antipyretics and monitor the patient closely

Rationale:
A mild temperature increase of up to 1°C is a common and often benign occurrence during a blood transfusion, typically caused by a low-grade transfusion reaction. In this case, the nurse should administer PRN antipyretics to manage the fever and monitor the patient closely for any worsening symptoms or signs of more severe reactions.

400

6. Which of the following laboratory findings may indicate shock in a patient? (Select all that apply.)

A. Elevated lactate levels
B. Decreased hemoglobin
C. Increased creatinine
D. Decreased platelet count
E. Elevated BUN

Correct Answers: A. Elevated lactate levels, B. Decreased hemoglobin, C. Increased creatinine, E. Elevated BUN

500

In a patient in the early (compensated) stage of shock, which of the following lab values would most likely be observed? (Select all that apply.)

A. Increased epinephrine
B. Increased norepinephrine
C. Increased serotonin
D. Decreased epinephrine
E. Decreased norepinephrine
F. Decreased serotonin

Correct Answers: A. Increased epinephrine, B. Increased norepinephrine

Rationale:

  • In the early (compensated) stage of shock, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) in response to decreased perfusion. This leads to the release of catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine to maintain blood pressure and cardiac output.
  • Epinephrine (A) increases heart rate and contractility to improve circulation.
  • Norepinephrine (B) causes vasoconstriction to help maintain blood pressure.

Incorrect Answers:

  • Increased serotonin (C): Serotonin is not a major factor in the early shock response.
  • Decreased epinephrine (D) & Decreased norepinephrine (E): These would indicate a failure of compensatory mechanisms, which is not seen in the early stage of shock.
  • Decreased serotonin (F): Serotonin levels do not play a primary role in shock compensation.
500

Which of the following statements are true about vasodilators? (Select all that apply.)

A. Increases preload
B. Increases afterload
C. We want to monitor for tachycardia
D. Decreases the demands of the heart
E. The patients are put at risk for bleeding
F. Epinephrine is an example

Correct Answers: C. We want to monitor for tachycardia, D. Decreases the demands of the heart

Rationale:

  • C. We want to monitor for tachycardia: Vasodilators can lead to reflex tachycardia as the body compensates for decreased blood pressure.
  • D. Decreases the demands of the heart: By reducing afterload and preload, vasodilators decrease the heart's workload, making them useful in conditions like heart failure or hypertension.
  • A. Increases preload and B. Increases afterload: These are incorrect. Vasodilators typically decrease preload and afterload by relaxing blood vessels, which reduces the workload of the heart.
  • E. The patients are put at risk for bleeding: This is incorrect; vasodilators do not generally put patients at risk for bleeding.
  • F. Epinephrine is an example: Incorrect. Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor, not a vasodilator.
500

Which of the following are risk factors for developing cardiogenic shock? (Select all that apply.)

A. Alkalosis
B. Severe hypoxemia
C. Arrhythmias
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Myocardial infarction (MI)
F. Sepsis

Correct Answers: B. Severe hypoxemia, C. Arrhythmias, E. Myocardial infarction (MI)

Rationale:

  • Severe hypoxemia (B): Insufficient oxygen supply can compromise heart function, leading to cardiogenic shock.
  • Arrhythmias (C): Abnormal heart rhythms, such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation, impair cardiac output and can result in shock.
  • Myocardial infarction (MI) (E): A heart attack leads to damage of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to pump effectively and potentially causing cardiogenic shock.

The incorrect options:

  • Alkalosis (A): Alkalosis is an imbalance in blood pH and does not directly contribute to cardiogenic shock.
  • Pulmonary embolism (D): This causes obstructive shock, not cardiogenic shock, by blocking blood flow in the lungs.
  • Sepsis (F): Sepsis leads to distributive shock, not cardiogenic shock, by causing widespread vasodilation.
500

Which findings could indicate that a patient has intravascular volume loss? (Select all that apply.)

A. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds
B. Bradycardia
C. Mental status changes
D. Increased WBC
E. Cool, clammy skin
F. Urticaria


Correct Answers: A. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds, C. Mental status changes, & E. Cool, clammy skin

Rationale:

  • Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds (A) suggests poor perfusion due to decreased circulating blood volume.
  • Bradycardia (B) is not typically associated with intravascular loss; tachycardia is more common as a compensatory response.
  • Mental status changes (C) occur due to reduced cerebral perfusion from inadequate blood volume.
  • Increased WBC (D) is not a direct indicator of intravascular volume loss; it is more indicative of infection or inflammation.
  • Cool, clammy skin (E) results from vasoconstriction as the body tries to maintain blood pressure.
  • Urticaria (F) is related to allergic reactions, not intravascular volume depletion.
500

Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to observe in a patient in obstructive shock due to cardiac tamponade? (Select all that apply.)

A. Dyspnea
B. Distended neck veins
C. Bounding central pulses
D. Hypotension
E. Angioedema
F. Muscle spasms

Correct Answers: A. Dyspnea, B. Distended neck veins, D. Hypotension

Rationale:

  • Dyspnea (A) is common in cardiac tamponade due to restricted heart function and impaired circulation, leading to pulmonary congestion.
  • Distended neck veins (B) occur as a result of increased venous pressure caused by impaired filling of the heart.
  • Hypotension (D) is a hallmark of obstructive shock, including in cardiac tamponade, due to reduced cardiac output.
  • Bounding central pulses (C) are not typical in cardiac tamponade, as the condition often causes weak or absent pulses due to reduced cardiac output.
  • Angioedema (E) is not related to cardiac tamponade and is more associated with allergic reactions.
  • Muscle spasms (F) are not a common feature of obstructive shock and are more likely related to other conditions such as electrolyte imbalances.
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