Diseases
Which diagnostic procedure is essential to confirm the diagnosis of Acute Myeloid Leukemia?
A). Complete Blood Count
B). Bone Marrow Aspirate and Biopsy
C). Spinal Fluid (CSF) Analysis
D). PET scan
B). Bone Marrow Aspirate and Biopsy
A patient receiving total body irradiation (TBI) as part of their conditioning regimen asks why this treatment is necessary. What is the BEST explanation?
A). TBI suppresses the immune system and eradicates residual cancer cells
B). TBI stimulating the patient's immune system prior to transplant
C). TBI neutralizes chemotherapy drugs, preventing excessive toxicity
D). TBI promotes rapid engraftment by enhancing chemotherapy absorption
A). TBI suppresses the immune system and eradicates residual cancer cells
After stem cell collection, why is product analysis performed prior to infusion?
A). To verify the identity of the donor
B). To test for infectious diseases
C). To confirm the cell dose and viability before administration to the patient
D). To genetically modify cells before administration to the patient
C). To confirm the cell dose and viability before administration to the patient
What does achieving full donor chimerism signify in the context of hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT)?
A). The recipient's cells have completely replaced the donor's cells
B). The donor's cells have completely replaced the recipient's cells
C). Both donor and recipient cells coexist equally
D). The recipient's immune system has rejected the donor's cells
B). The donor's cells have completely replaced the recipient's cells
What is the primary method for diagnosing acute GVHD?
A). Pathology alone
B). Clinical diagnosis based on symptoms
C). Blood tests
D). Imaging studies
B). Clinical diagnosis based on symptoms
What is the primary characteristic of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?
A). Presence of too many lymphoblasts in the blood.
B). Development of aggressive, abnormal myeloblasts in the bone marrow.
C). Uncontrolled production of mature blood cells.
D). Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the lymph nodes.
A). Presence of too many lymphoblasts in the blood.
What is the purpose of pharmacokinetic testing when administering Busulfan?
A). To eliminate residual cancer cells to enhance transplant success
B). To assess disease status and how the cancer has responded to the chemotherapy
C). To verify that monoclonal antibody therapy is effective
D). To determine whether the drug concentration in the bloodstream is appropriate to the dose given
D). To determine whether the drug concentration in the bloodstream is appropriate to the dose given
What is the significance of cord blood in hematopoietic cell transplantation?
A). It yields a larger quantity of stem cells compared to bone marrow.
B). It involves utilizing the patient's own immune cells to combat cancer.
C). The level of match between donor and recipient is considered less critical due to the adaptability of cord blood stem cells.
D). It involves the use of a mobilization agent
C). The level of match between donor and recipient is considered less critical due to the adaptability of cord blood stem cells.
What is the impact of higher cell doses during stem cell transplantation on cell recovery?
A). Slower recovery due to insufficient resources for cell regeneration.
B). Faster recovery due to ample resources for the body to regenerate blood and immune cells.
C). No impact on recovery rates.
D). Increased risk of rejection and complications.
B). Faster recovery due to ample resources for the body to regenerate blood and immune cells.
Which of the following is NOT a type of onset chronic GVHD?
A). Transformative
B). Progressive
C). Interrupted
D). De novo
A). Transformative
What is the primary difference between Hodgkin's Lymphoma and Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
A). Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
B). Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
C). Hodgkin's Lymphoma typically occurs in older adults.
D). Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma typically occurs in children.
A). Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
Which of the following best describes Myeloablative conditioning?
A). Suppresses the recipient's immune system to a level that allows for successful engraftment of donor stem cells without completely eliminating the recipient's own stem cells.
B). Eradicates all existing stem cells in the bone marrow, typically employed in cases where the patient has a cancer originating from the bone marrow, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and is particularly suited for younger patients who can tolerate aggressive treatment.
C). Used exclusively for older patients with significant comorbidities.
D). Exposes the entire body to ionizing radiation to eradicate residual cancer cells, create space within the bone marrow for engraftment, and suppress the recipient's immune system to reduce the risk of rejection
B). Eradicates all existing stem cells in the bone marrow, typically employed in cases where the patient has a cancer originating from the bone marrow, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and is particularly suited for younger patients who can tolerate aggressive treatment.
Which of the following best explains why HLA-mismatched unrelated donor (MMUD) hematopoietic cell transplantation can now achieve successful outcomes comparable to matched donor transplants?
A) Ex vivo T-cell depletion to eliminate alloreactive cells prior to infusion, thereby preventing GVHD.
B). Intensified conditioning regimens (e.g., higher-dose chemotherapy or total body irradiation) to eradicate recipient immune cells, which alone is sufficient to overcome HLA barriers and prevent graft rejection.
C). Pre and post-transplant administration of Abatacept, which is sufficient to prevent rejection and GVHD in mismatched transplants.
D). High-dose post-transplant cyclophosphamide (PTCy) after graft infusion, which selectively eliminates recently activated alloreactive T cells while sparing regulatory T cells, thus reducing GVHD and allowing engraftment across HLA barriers.
D). High-dose post-transplant cyclophosphamide (PTCy) after graft infusion, which selectively eliminates recently activated alloreactive T cells while sparing regulatory T cells, thus reducing GVHD and allowing engraftment across HLA barriers.
Which of the following assessments is the least sensitive in detecting disease progression?
A). Molecular Assessments
B). Cytogenetic Assessments
C). Flow Cytometry
D). Biomarker Tests
D). Biomarker Tests
Which of the following is not a common GVHD prophylaxis medication?
A). Doxycycline
B). Calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs)
C). Methotrexate
D). Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)
A). Doxycycline
What does the term "Primary Induction Failure" refer to in the context of AML?
A). The patient achieved CR but relapsed shortly after.
B). The patient received treatment but never achieved CR or CRi.
C). The patient achieved CRi but not CR.
D). The patient received only supportive therapy.
B). The patient received treatment but never achieved CR or CRi.
A 68-year-old patient with multiple comorbidities is considered for allogeneic stem cell transplant. The team opts for a reduced intensity conditioning regimen. Which of the following BEST explains the choice?
A). To deliver the highest possible dose of chemotherapy to eliminate cancer cells
B). To avoid high doses of chemotherapy that negatively impact post-transplant morbidities and mortality
C). To allow for successful engraftment while minimizing treatment-related toxicity
D). To avoid the use of monoclonal antibody therapy and total body irradiation
C). To allow for successful engraftment while minimizing treatment-related toxicity
A 55-year-old recipient is receiving a cord blood transplant. The transplant team decides to use two cord blood units. What is the MOST likely reason for this decision?
A). To improve match stringency between donor and recipient
B). The quantity from a single cord is often insufficient for adult patients
C). To increase the number of mobilization agents used
D). To reduce the risk of graft-versus-host disease
B). The quantity from a single cord is often insufficient for adult patients
What is primary graft failure in the context of HCT?
A). Occurs when the patient initially engrafts with donor cells but loses them later.
B). Occurs when the patient experiences a relapse of the original disease.
C). Occurs when the patient doesn't initially engraft with donor cells, usually by Day 28.
D). Occurs when the patient doesn't initially engraft with donor cells, usually by Day 100.
C). Occurs when the patient doesn't initially engraft with donor cells, usually by Day 28.
How might the presence of mild GVHD influence the chimerism results and overall transplant outcome?
A). It confirms graft failure
B). It suggests that a second transplant may be needed to maintain donor chimerism
C). It may contribute to the decrease in donor chimerism
D). It has no impact on chimerism results
C). It may contribute to the decrease in donor chimerism
What is the primary difference between Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) and Myeloproliferative Neoplasms (MPN)?
A). MDS is a type of leukemia, while MPN is not.
B). MDS affects lymphoid cells, while MPN affects myeloid cells.
C). MDS is more common in children, while MPN is more common in adults.
D). MDS causes low blood cell counts, while MPN causes high blood cell counts.
D). MDS causes low blood cell counts, while MPN causes high blood cell counts.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between low-resolution and high-resolution HLA typing?
A). Low-resolution typing identifies specific HLA alleles or protein sequences within the antigen-binding site, while high-resolution typing identifies specific HLA coding regions within the peptide.
B). Low-resolution typing identifies HLA antigens or allele groups, while high-resolution typing identifies specific HLA alleles or protein sequences within the antigen-binding site.
C). High-resolution typing identifies HLA antigens or allele groups and is used for rapid screening of donors and recipients for transplantation.
D). High-resolution typing does not require crossmatching.
B). Low-resolution typing identifies HLA antigens or allele groups, while high-resolution typing identifies specific HLA alleles or protein sequences within the antigen-binding site.
What is the significance of donor-specific anti-HLA antibodies (DSAs) in the context of HCT?
A). DSAs are produced by the recipient's immune system and specifically target and react against the HLA present on the donor's cells, increasing the risk of primary graft failure and early non-relapse mortality.
B). DSAs are produced by the donor's immune system and specifically target and react against the HLA present on the recipient's cells, increasing the risk of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
C). DSAs are produced by the recipient's immune system and specifically target and react against the recipient's own cells, increasing the risk of autoimmune diseases.
D). DSAs are produced by the donor's immune system and specifically target and react against the donor's own cells, increasing the risk of graft rejection.
A). DSAs are produced by the recipient's immune system and specifically target and react against the HLA present on the donor's cells, increasing the risk of primary graft failure and early non-relapse mortality.
David, a 48-year-old patient, has been diagnosed with CLL. His initial assessments included a complete blood count and blood chemistry tests, followed by flow cytometry and a PET scan. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the disease assessments conducted for David?
A). The Complete Blood Count was used to identify specific genetic abnormalities
B). Blood chemistry tests were used to analyze specific cell populations
C). Flow cytometry was used to analyze specific cell populations.
D). The PET scan was used to evaluate the cellularity of the marrow
C). Flow cytometry was used to analyze specific cell populations.
If the recipient is Seropositive (+) and the donor is Seropositive (-), what is the risk that the recipient will develop a virus?
A). Low: Only risk is exposure post-transplant
B). Intermediate: Risk of primary infection in recipient
C). Moderate: Risk of reactivation during immune suppression
D). High: Recipient carries virus in their tissues
C). Moderate: Risk of reactivation during immune suppression