Test Organization
Test Planning and Estimation
Test Monitoring and control
Configuration Management
Risk and Testing
100

Who normally writes the test plan for a project?

a) The project manager

b) The product owner

c) The test manager

d) The tester

c) The test manager

100

Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?

a) Budget limitations

b) Test log

c) Failure rate

d) Use cases

a) Budget limitations


Making decisions about what to test are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted

100

Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

a) Percentage of executed test cases

b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution

c) Coverage of requirements by source code

d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed

a) Percentage of executed test cases

100

If the developers are releasing code for testing that is not version controlled, what process is missing?

a) Configuration management

b) Debugging

c) Test and defect management

d) Risk analysis

a) Configuration management

100

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them

b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

200

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing

b) Review tests developed by others

c) Prepare and acquire test data

d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications and models for testability

a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing

200

Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?

a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project

b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers

c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team

d) Average of calculations collected from business experts

a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project

200

Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing

b) Deviations from the test approach

c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria

d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing

200

Configuration management for testing may involve ensuring the following

a) All test items of the test object are uniquely identified, version controlled, tracked for changes and related to each other, that is, what is being tested.

b) All items of testware are uniquely identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, related to each other and related to a version of the test item(s) so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process.

c) All identified work products and software items are referenced unambiguously in test documentation.

d) all of above

d) all of above

200

Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk?

a) Testing and Development

b) Dynamic and reactive

c) Statement and decision

d) Likelihood and impact

d) Likelihood and impact

300

Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines

b) The test manager plans, coordinates and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object

d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests

b) The test manager plans, coordinates and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

300

Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?

a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks

b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness

c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness

d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost

a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks

300

Which sections are included as part of the test summary report?   

I. Information on what occurred during a test period   

II. Factors that have blocked or continue to block progress   

III. Metrics of defects   

IV. Reusable test work products produced

a) I, II, III

b) I, II, III, IV

c) I, II, IV

d) I, III, IV

b) I, II, III, IV

300

A discipline applying technical and administrative direction and surveillance to identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a configuration item, control changes to those characteristics, record and report change processing and implementation status, and verify compliance with specified requirements.

a) Configuration control

b) Defect management

c) Configuration management

d) Test management tool

c) Configuration management

300

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team

c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements

d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

400

Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility

b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines

c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

400

You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an

Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan?

a) Scope of testing

b) Approach of testing

c) Metrics of testing

d) Configuration management of the test object

b) Approach of testing

400

Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing?   

I. Re-prioritizing test cases   

II. Changing the test schedule   

III. Re-evaluating whether a test item meets an entry or exit criterion due to rework

a) I, III only

b) II, III only

c) I, II and III

d) I, III only

c) I, II and III

400

During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?

a) Traceability

b) Confirmation testing

c) Configuration control

d) Test documentation management

c) Configuration control

400

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will not be performed in that area

c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system

d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will not be performed in that area

500

During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?


a) The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release

b) The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release

c) The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort

d) The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release

b) The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release

500

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent

2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope

3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified

4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones

5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked

6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:


a) Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4

b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5

c) Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6

d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

500

In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement,  The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?


a) Status of testing and product quality with respect to the exit criteria or definition of done

b) Deviations from plan, including deviations in schedule, duration, or effort of test activities

c) Information on what occurred during a test period

d) Factors that have blocked or continue to block progress 

a) Status of testing and product quality with respect to the exit criteria or definition of done

500

Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration management:

I Identify and document the characteristics of a test item.

II Control changes to the characteristics of a test item.

III Check a test item for defects introduced by a change.

IV Record and report the status of changes to test items.

V Confirm that changes to a test item fixed a defect.

Which of the following statements is True?


a) Only I is a configuration management task.

b) All are configuration management tasks.

c) I, II and III are configuration management tasks.

d) I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.

d) I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.

500

Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort:

A. Incorrect totals on reports

B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing

C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app

D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry

E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings

Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks?


a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D

b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E

c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B

d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E

b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E

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