Test Organization
Test Planning and Estimation
Test Monitoring and Control
Test Tool Consideration
Effective USe of Tools
100

What is the biggest problem with a developer testing his own code?

a) Developers are not good testers

b) Developers are not quality focused

c) Developers are not objective about their own code

d) Developers do not have time to test their own code

c) Developers are not objective about their own code

100

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

b) The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach 

c) Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

d) Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

a) The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

100

Which of the following is a test metric?

a) Percentage of planned functionality that has completed development

b) Confirmation test results (pass/fail)

c) Cost of development, including time and effort

d) Effort spent in fixing defects, not including confirmation testing or regression testing

b) Confirmation test results (pass/fail)

100

Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools?

a) It is easy to create regression tests

b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets

c) It is easy to design tests for security testing

d) It is easy to run regression tests

d) It is easy to run regression tests

100

Which of the following are major objectives of a pilot project for a tool introduction?

a) Roll out, adapt, train, implement

b) Monitor, support, revise, implement

c) Learn, evaluate, decide, assess

d) Evaluate, adapt, monitor, support

c) Learn, evaluate, decide, assess

200

Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

a) Testers have different biases than developers

b) Testers are isolated from the development team

c) Testers lack information about the test object

d) Testers will accept responsibility for quality

a) Testers have different biases than developers

200

What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?

a) To communicate how incidents will be managed

b) To coordinate multiple test levels or test types

c) To produce a test schedule

b) To produce a work breakdown structure


b) To coordinate multiple test levels or test types

200

Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution?

a) Test case status

b) Defect find/fix rates

c) Test environment preparation

d) Estimated cost to find the next defect


a) Test case status

200

Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?

a) Requirement management tools

b) Configuration management tools 

c) Static analysis tools

d) Performance testing tools

c) Static analysis tools

200

Why is it important to define usage guidelines for a new tool?

a) Because this is a proven success factor in tool deployment

b) Because this will ensure the licensing restrictions are enforced

c) Because management needs to understand the details of the tool usage

d) Because this will provide the information needed for the cost/benefit analysis

a) Because this is a proven success factor in tool deployment

300

Which of the following BEST explains a drawback of independent testing?

a) An independent test team may be isolated from the rest of the development and project team

b) Due to their different backgrounds and perspectives an independent test team may discover defects which the developers did not uncover

c) An independent test team may possesses specializations in specific test types such as usability or security which detract from the overall effectiveness of the test team

d) Having the business organization participate as an independent test team can hurt the overall testing effort since business participants are often not trained nor experienced in testing

a) An independent test team may be isolated from the rest of the development and project team


300

When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that 

a) Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail

b) Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design

c) Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

d) Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system 


c) Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

300

Which of the following variances should be explained in the Test Summary Report?

a) The variances between the weekly status reports and the test exit criteria

b) The variances between the defects found and the defects fixed

c) The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested

d) The variances between the test cases executed and the total number of test cases

c) The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested

300

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

a) Tools to support usability 

b) Tools to assess data quality

c) Tools to support specialized testing needs

d) Tools to support static testing

d) Tools to support static testing

300


You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out?

a) Learn more details about the tool

b) See how the tool would fit with existing processes and practices

c) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing, and maintaining the tool and the test assets

d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost


d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

400

During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer’s interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner’s interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation?


a) Recognizing different kinds of failures

b) Taking primary responsibility for quality

c) Removing a defect early

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

400

Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

I. Determining the scope, objectives, and risks of testing

II. Selecting metrics for test monitoring and control 

III. Designing and prioritizing test cases and sets of test cases

IV. Determining the level of detail and structure for test documentation


a) I, II, IV are true and III is false

b) I, IV are true and II is false

c) I, II are true and III, IV are false

d) II, III, IV are true and I is false

a) I, II, IV are true and III is false

400

Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing?   

I. Re-prioritizing test cases   

II. Changing the test schedule   

III. Re-evaluating whether a test item meets an entry or exit criterion due to rework

a) I, III only

b) II, III only 

c) I, II,  III

d) I, II only

c) I, II,  III

400

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

a) Availability of the test automation tool vendor

b) Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool 

c) Reduction in repetitive manual work

d) More subjective assessment

c) Reduction in repetitive manual work

400

Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change

b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool

c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools

d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change

500

During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?


a) The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release

b) The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release

c) The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort

d) The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release

b) The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release

500

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. A defined level of code coveradge has been archived

2. The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3. The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined

4. The performance test environment has been set-up and available 

5. The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6. The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further


a) Entry criteria - 1,3,4; Exit criteria - 2,5,6

b) Entry criteria - 2,4,5; Exit criteria - 1,3,6

c) Entry criteria - 2,4; Exit criteria - 1,3,5,6

d) Entry criteria - 2,4,5,6; Exit criteria - 1,3

b) Entry criteria - 2,4,5; Exit criteria - 1,3,6

500

Which sections are included as part of the test summary report?   

I. Information on what occurred during a test period   

II. Factors that have blocked or continue to block progress   

III. Metrics of defects   

IV. Reusable test work products produced

a) I, II, III

b) I, II, III, IV

c) I, II, IV

d) I, III, IV

b) I, II, III, IV

500

Given the following test activities and test tools:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis

2. Test execution and logging

3. Management of testing and testware

4. Test design

A. Requirements coverage tools

B. Dynamic analysis tools

C. Test data preparation tools

D. Defect management tools

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?


a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D

c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C

c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

500

Which of the following activities should be considered before purchasing a tool for an organization? 

I. Ensure that the tool does not have a negative impact on existing test processes

II. Produce a business justification examining both costs and benefits

III. Determine whether the vendor will continue to provide support for the tool

IV. Evaluation of the tool against clear requirements 

a) II, III

b) II, III, IV

c) III, IV

d) I, II, II, IV

b) II, III, IV

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