ACT Test Day Strategies
ACT English Basics
Production of Writing
Knowledge of Language
Conventions of Standard English.
100
What should you do if you are unsure of an answer?
Eliminate choices you know are wrong, choose the best remaining answer, and move on if needed.
100
How many questions and how much time are on the enhanced ACT English section?
50 questions in 35 minutes.
100
What type of question is a Production of Writing question?
A. Which verb agrees with the subject?
B. Should the writer add a sentence to support the main idea?
C. Which word is spelled correctly?
B — It asks about the purpose and development of the writing.
100
What type of question is a Knowledge of Language question?
A. Which punctuation mark is correct?
B. Which wording is clearest and least repetitive?
C. Which sentence should come first in the passage?
B — It focuses on effective word choice, clarity, and concision.
100
What type of question is a Conventions of Standard English question?
A. Does this sentence use the correct verb and punctuation?
B. Does this paragraph have enough evidence?
C. Is this word too informal for the passage?
Answer: A — It tests grammar, usage, sentence structure, and mechanics.
200
About how many seconds do you have per question?
42 seconds on average (35 minutes ÷ 50 questions).
200
What will you usually read before answering ACT English questions?
A. A passage or essay
B. A list of unrelated vocabulary words
C. A math formula sheet
A — Questions are tied to passages and ask you to revise or edit writing. There will be 6 - 7 passages to read.
200
A passage is about the benefits of exercise. Which sentence should probably be removed and why?
A. Exercise can improve heart health.
B. Walking is an easy way to get moving.
C. My favorite movie came out last summer.
C - It is irrelevant to the passage’s focus.
200
Which sentence is most concise?
A. The reason why we left was because it was late.
B. We left because it was late.
C. Due to the fact that it was late, we left.
B — It communicates the idea without unnecessary words.
200
Choose the correct verb: “The box of pencils ___ on the desk.”
A. are
B. is
C. were
B — “Box” is the subject, and it is singular.
300
Should you choose an answer just because it is the shortest?
No. Choose the clearest, most effective answer that fits the context. Shorter is not always better.
300
What does “NO CHANGE” mean when it appears as an answer choice?
Keep the original wording if it is already the best choice in context.
300
A paragraph explains a problem but never explains how it was solved. What would improve it most?
A. Add details explaining the solution.
B. Add an unrelated story.
C. Repeat the problem several times
A. The details help develop the paragraph’s purpose.
300
A formal research report uses the phrase “That experiment was super cool.” What would best maintain its tone?
A. That experiment was really awesome.
B. The experiment produced interesting results.
C. That experiment was totally amazing.
B — The wording better fits a formal research report.
300
Which sentence is correct?
A. I finished my homework, I went outside.
B. I finished my homework; then I went outside.
C. I finished, my homework then I went outside.
B — The semicolon correctly separates two independent clauses.
400
What is one reason to read the sentence before and after the underlined or highlighted section?
The surrounding context can reveal the intended meaning, tone, transitions, and logical connection between ideas.
400
Approximately what percentage of English questions fall into Knowledge of Language?
A. 18–23%
B. 38–43%
C. 50–60%
A — About 18–23%. ACT
400
A writer wants to explain why a community built a new library. Where would details about the community’s need for books and study space fit best?
In the body. In the part of the passage explaining the reasons for building the library, where they support the main point.
400
Choose the most precise word: “The scientist ___ the results carefully.”
A. looked at
B. checked out
C. examined
C — “Examined” is precise and appropriate for scientific writing.
400
Identify the error: “Each of the players have a uniform.”
“Have” should be “has.” The subject “each” is singular.
500
Two choices are grammatically correct. How do you decide between them?
Consider the whole passage. Select the choice that best matches the writer’s purpose, meaning, style, and organization.
500
How many questions are scored on the enhanced ACT English section?
40 are scored; 10 additional embedded field-test questions bring the total to 50. Students do not know which questions are field-test items. ACT+1
500
A passage describes a student’s research project in chronological order. Where should a sentence explaining the final results usually go?
Near the end, after the methods and findings leading to the results, if that placement best fits the passage’s organization.
500
Which phrase should be removed because it repeats an idea already expressed? “The final outcome of the experiment surprised everyone.”
“Final” or “outcome” can be revised to remove redundancy. For example: “The experiment’s outcome surprised everyone.”
500
Which revision fixes the run-on sentence? “The rain stopped, we went outside.”
A. The rain stopped we went outside.
B. The rain stopped, and we went outside.
C. The rain stopped, because we went outside.
B — “And” correctly joins the two related independent clauses.