500
DAILY DOUBLE
A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents to the ER with hematemesis. He claims to have no history of PUD, or significant weight loss. Two weeks ago he underwent debridement and drainage for an infected pancreatic pseudocyst, for which external drains were placed. He also underwent a recent colonoscopy with findings of benign polyps. On physical examination, he is afebrile, with vital signs showing a BP of 90/60 mmHg, HR 120 bpm, RR of 21 breaths/min. Abdominal examination revealed a soft abdomen, two Jackson-Pratt (JP) drains over the left hemiabdomen draining brownish material, slightly tender over the drain site, with a palpable spleen near the umbilicus with normoactive bowel sounds. An NGT was inserted and revealed fresh nonclotting blood. Laboratory examinations showed a hemoglobin of 6.1 g/dL. IVF and blood products given and a CT scan was performed which showed nonenhancing pancreas, no free air, no intraabdominal fluid or abscess but did show splenomegaly and splenic vein thrombosis. An EGD was performed which showed no ulcers, no erosions, but gastric varices were noted with no stigmata of recent bleed. Over the next 2 days, the patient stabilized, but then had another episode of GI bleed. Urgent endoscopy was performed which showed bleeding gastric varices. No attempts at endoscopic therapy were performed. Later that evening, the patient becomes hypotensive with a Hgb of 7 g/dL, BP of 80/60 mmHg, and HR of 120 bpm. What is the therapeutic modality of choice?
A. splenectomy and wedge resection of the gastric varices
B. subtotal gastrectomy
C. splenectomy
D. repeat EGD
E. angiogram with arterial embolization
Ans: C. Gastric varices indicate left sided (sinistral) hypertension with splenic vein thrombosis likely from the pancreatitis. The treatment is splenectomy, which eliminates splenic artery inflow and venous outflow with immediate reduction of variceal blood flow.