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100

A trauma patient develops bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations. What physiologic mechanism explains this triad?

Cushing’s reflex from brainstem compression increasing MAP to preserve CPP.

100

In a combative trauma patient requiring intubation, what is the safest airway approach for suspected cervical injury?

Rapid-sequence intubation with manual in-line stabilization and video laryngoscopy.

100

What is the definitive sign distinguishing tension pneumothorax from simple pneumothorax in an intubated patient?

Sudden hypotension with increased airway pressures and absent breath sounds on one side.

100

What are the four primary views in a FAST exam?

RUQ (Morrison’s pouch), LUQ (splenorenal), pelvis, pericardium.

100

 Name the components of the trauma “lethal triad.”

Hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy (+ hypocalcemia as modern 4th element).

200

In severe TBI, what CPP range is targeted, and what is the minimum acceptable SBP for adults?

 CPP 60–70 mmHg; SBP ≥ 100 mmHg (or ≥ 110 if >50 yrs).

200

According to the Canadian C-spine rule, what mechanism qualifies as “dangerous”?

Fall > 3 ft / 5 stairs, axial load, MVC > 100 km/h, rollover/ejection, motorized recreational vehicle, bicycle collision.


200

What is the threshold chest tube output that indicates need for thoracotomy?

>1500 mL initial output or >200 mL/hour for 3 hours.

200

What is the most commonly injured solid organ in blunt abdominal trauma?

Spleen.

200

What mean arterial pressure (MAP) range defines permissive hypotension during uncontrolled hemorrhage?

50–60 mmHg until hemostasis is achieved (except in TBI).


300

A patient with suspected uncal herniation receives mannitol. What key condition must be verified before administration?

Adequate blood pressure (avoid hypovolemia — mannitol can worsen hypotension).

300

What is the key difference between neurogenic shock and spinal shock?

Neurogenic shock is hemodynamic — loss of sympathetic tone → hypotension and bradycardia.

Spinal shock is neurologic — temporary loss of all motor, sensory, and reflex activity below the injury.

300

 In flail chest, what underlying injury often causes respiratory failure?


Pulmonary contusion leading to ventilation–perfusion mismatch.

300

Where should a pelvic binder be placed for suspected pelvic fracture?

Over the greater trochanters.

300

A patient with leg crush injury has a compartment pressure of 40 mmHg and diastolic BP of 65 mmHg. Does he meet criteria for fasciotomy?

Yes — ΔP = 25 (< 30 mmHg threshold).

400

What PECARN feature independently predicts clinically important TBI in children <2 years old?

Palpable skull fracture or GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury.

400

Central cord syndrome typically causes what pattern of motor deficit?

Greater weakness in upper than lower extremities (often after hyperextension in elderly).

400

What is the most useful initial test to screen for blunt cardiac injury?

12-lead ECG.

400

In pregnant trauma, what maneuver prevents aortocaval compression?

Left lateral uterine displacement (manual or wedge).

400

What is the recommended timing for TXA administration in major trauma?

Within 3 hours of injury (1 g IV bolus, then 1 g over 8 hours).

500

If hyperventilation is temporarily needed for ICP control, what PaCO₂ range should be targeted?

30–35 mmHg (only as a bridge to definitive therapy).

500

What is the main reason corticosteroids were abandoned for acute SCI management?

Increased infection and mortality without neurologic improvement (per NASCIS reanalysis).

500

What is the preferred site for needle decompression in adults per current trauma guidelines?

5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line.

500

Free fluid on CT without solid-organ injury suggests what type of injury?

Hollow viscus or mesenteric injury.


500

Name one contraindication to REBOA use.

Major thoracic hemorrhage, aortic injury, or prolonged transport without surgical/IR capability.

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