Civil Procedure
Contracts
Torts
Secured Transactions
Evidence
100

These actions must be taken within X days of being served: (1) answering a complaint, (2) amending a pleading once as a matter of course, and (3) responding to a Rule 12 motion with an amended pleading.

What is 21 days?

100

This requires (1) a clear promise, (2) reasonable and detrimental reliance, and (3) enforcement necessary to prevent injustice.

What is promissory estoppel?

100

This doctrine allows a plaintiff to recover in full from any negligent defendant when multiple causes combine to produce a single, indivisible injury, even if each defendant acted independently.

What is joint and several liability?

100

This gives a lender rights in collateral when (1) value is given, (2) debtor has rights in the collateral, and (3) there is a security agreement.

What is attachment?

100

These hearsay exceptions require X in order to apply: statement against interest, dying declaration, former testimony, and statement of personal or family history.

What is an unavailable declarant?

200

This doctrine instructs federal courts to apply state substantive law and federal procedural law in diversity cases.

What is the Erie Doctrine?

200

This doctrine allows enforcement of a contract lacking a bargained-for exchange if one party received a material benefit and retention would be unjust.

What is material benefit rule (quasi-contract)?

200

This type of causation requires that the harm would not have occurred “but for” the defendant’s conduct.

What is actual (or factual) cause?

200

This is achieved by filing a financing statement or taking possession or control of the collateral.

What is perfection?

200

This exception applies when a declarant makes a statement under belief of impending death concerning the cause or circumstances.

What is a dying declaration?

300

This allows a party to bring in a third party who may be liable for part or all of the plaintiff’s claim against them.

What is impleader (Rule 14)?

300

This bars a party from enforcing a term in a contract if their conduct caused the other party to reasonably believe the term would not be enforced.

What is waiver or estoppel?

300

Under this doctrine, the plaintiff must show that all defendants were negligent, one caused the injury, the exact cause is unknown, and all possible tortfeasors are before the court—shifting the burden of proof to the defendants.

What is alternative liability?

300

This interest has super-priority if perfected within 20 days of the debtor receiving the X [type of goods].

What is a purchase money security interest (PMSI) on inventory?

300

This rule allows a prior inconsistent statement to be admitted for its truth if it was made under oath at a prior trial, hearing, or deposition, and the declarant now testifies and is subject to cross-examination.

What is a prior inconsistent statement under oath?

400

This requires (1) a common nucleus of operative fact and (2) that the court already has original jurisdiction over at least one claim.

What is supplemental jurisdiction?

400

This UCC rule requires a signed writing for a contract of $500 or more unless an exception applies.

What is the Statute of Frauds (UCC § 2-201)?

400

This defense bars/decreases recovery when a plaintiff voluntarily and knowingly assumes a specific risk.

What is assumption of risk?

400

This rule determines which perfected security interest has priority.

What is first-in-time rule (first to file or perfect)?

400

This impeachment method challenges a witness’s ability to perceive or remember events.

What is sensory or mental defect?

500

Parties must, without awaiting a discovery request, disclose the names of individuals likely to have discoverable information, copies or descriptions of documents they may use to support their claims or defenses, a computation of damages claimed, and applicable insurance agreements.

What are the required Rule 26(a)(1)(A) initial disclosures?

500

This doctrine discharges duties when a party’s principal purpose is substantially frustrated without their fault.

What is frustration of purpose?

500

This allows employers to be held liable for employee torts committed within the scope of employment.

What is respondeat superior or vicarious liability?

500

This occurs when the secured party keeps the collateral in satisfaction of the debt, if the debtor consents.

What is strict foreclosure?

500

Under impeachment rules, bias and prior inconsistent statements may be proven with X evidence, but X evidence of specific instances of conduct is generally inadmissible except when showing bias, contradiction, or dishonesty.

What is extrinsic evidence?

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