CELL CYCLE/MITOSIS
During mitosis, what structure is responsible for moving the chromosomes within the cell, and for separating sister chomatids?
a. nucleolus
b. mitotic spindle
c. metaphase plate
d. cleavage furrow
b. mitotic spindle
Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces ___.
a. zygotes
b. somatic cells
c. DNA
d. gametes
d. gametes
The following DNA strand is used as a template for transcription: 3′ CGTAAGCGGCT 5′
Which of the following RNA strands will be produced?
a. 5′ AGCCGCUUACG 3′
b. 5′ GCAUUCGCCGA 3′
c. 5′ CGUAAGCGGCU 3′
d. 5′ GCATTCGCCGA 3′
b. 5′ GCAUUCGCCGA 3′
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called ____.
a. Replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. Transformation
c. Translation
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
a. character - a heritable feature that varies among individuals.
b. trait - a different form of a gene
c. genotype - the genetic makeup of an organism
d. phenotype - the physical characteristic of an organism.
b. trait - a different form of a gene
A cell with 10 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. ____ daughter cells are produced, each with ___ chromosomes.
a. 1; 10
b. 1; 20
c. 2; 10
d. 2; 20
c. 2; 10
(In mitosis, each parent cell produces two daughter cells that each have the same number of chromosomes of the parent cell).
Gametogenesis occurs when diploid germ cells undergo meiosis. In fruit flies, diploid germ cells contain eight chromosomes. Which of the following correctly describes the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells produced during gametogenesis in fruit flies?
a. The daughter cells each contain four chromosomes after meiosis I and four chromosomes after meiosis II.
b. The daughter cells each contain eight chromosomes after meiosis I and eight chromosomes after meiosis II.
c. The daughter cells each contain four chromosomes after meiosis I and two chromosomes after meiosis II.
d. The daughter cells each contain eight chromosomes after meiosis I and four chromosomes after meiosis II.
a. The daughter cells each contain four chromosomes after meiosis I and four chromosomes after meiosis II.
Which of the following is true regarding the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
a. Transcription occurs for individual genes.
b. Transcription uses both strands of DNA to make mRNA.
c. DNA polymerases control transcription.
d. The three stages of transcription are initiation, elimination, and reduction.
a. Transcription occurs for individual genes.
What is the anticodon corresponding to the codon GUA?
a. UAC
b. CAU
c. UTC
d. AUG
b. CAU
*An anticodon is complementary to the codon. It follows the A-U and C/G base pairing rules.
_____ genes are always expressed when present. _____ genes are only expressed when no dominant genes are present.
a. dominant; recessive
b. recessive; dominant
c. dominant; dominant
d. recessive; recessive
a. dominant; recessive
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
a. PROPHASE - DNA is replicated
b. METAPHASE - chromosomes line up along the imaginary plane that is equidistant from the two poles.
c. ANAPHASE - sister chromatids separate and become chromosomes
d. TELOPHASE - chromosomes begin to decondense and the nuclear envelope forms around each set of chromosomes.
a. PROPHASE - DNA is replicated
*DNA replication occurs in the S-phase of the interphase. In prophase, chromosomes begin to condense.
Which of the following is true regarding the process of meiosis I?
a. Sister chromatids separate.
b. Sister chromatids in a cell undergoing meiosis are always identical.
c. Tetrads are formed by synapsis of homologous chromosomes.
d. One pair of homologous chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate.
c. Tetrads are formed by synapsis of homologous chromosomes.
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
a. INITIATION - RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
b. ELONGATION - RNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides to the 3' end of the RNA strand.
c. TERMINATION - RNA polymerase stops transcribing.
d. RNA SPLICING - exons are removed and introns are expressed
d. RNA SPLICING - exons are removed and introns are expressed
During translation, which site in the ribosome allows for tRNA moelcules to enter the complex?
a. R site
b. E site
c. P site
d. A site
d. A site
A scientist crosses a homozygous red flower with a homozygous white flower. All of the resulting offspring are heterozygous with red flowers. Assuming that flower color is controlled by a single gene, which of the following statements is most likely true?
a. The allele for red flowers is dominant to the allele for white flowers.
b. The allele for red flowers is recessive to the allele for white flowers.
c. The allele for red flowers has mutated more times than the allele for white flowers.
d. The allele for red flowers is on a different chromosome than the allele for white flowers.
a. The allele for red flowers is dominant to the allele for white flowers.
Human skin cells divide about once a day. Which of the following conditions could prevent a skin cell from passing the G1 checkpoint?
a. The chromosomes of the cell are not properly attached to spindle fibers.
b. The cell's DNA is damaged.
c. The cell has not completed DNA replication.
d. All of the above.
b. The cell's DNA is damaged.
Which of the following correctly describes how Meiosis I and Meiosis II differ?
a. Meiosis I produces diploid daughter cells, while Meiosis II produces haploid daughter cells.
b. Pairs of homologous chromosomes are separated during Meiosis I, while sister chromatids are separated during Meiosis II.
c. Genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromatids during Meiosis II bit not Meiosis I.
d. Cytokinesis occurs following Meiosis II, but not Meiosis I.
b. Pairs of homologous chromosomes are separated during Meiosis I, while sister chromatids are separated during Meiosis II.
What is the role of the promoter region in the regulation of gene expression?
a. Alter gene expression by binding transcription factors
b. Recruit RNA polymerase and transcription factors to DNA
c. Allow for alternative splicing and recombination of genetic components
d. Bind negative regulators to inhibit gene expression
b. Recruit RNA polymerase and transcription factors to DNA
*The promoter region is the site of a gene where RNA polymerase and other transcription factors bind to DNA.
What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?
a. anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA
b. anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA
c. tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence
d. mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence
b. anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA
In pea plants, the allele for smooth pods (S) is dominant over the allele for constricted pods (s). Which of the following pairs of terms are correctly matched?
a. SS - genotype; constricted pod - phenotype
b. Ss - phenotype; smooth pod - genotype
c. ss - genotype; constricted pod - phenotype
d. ss - phenotype; constricted pod - genotype.
c. ss - genotype; constricted pod - phenotype
Checkpoints are the cell cycle control system. Which of the following occurs at the M checkpoint? What happens if the cell does not pass the M checkpoint?
a. The M checkpoint checks for proper attachment of sister chromatids. If it fails, then cells may undergo nondisjunction of chromosomes.
b. The M checkpoint checks if the DNA is damaged and promotes its repair. If it fails, then the cell may undergo apoptosis.
c. The M checkpoint ensures the proper duplication of DNA. If it fails, the daughter cells may end up with damaged DNA.
d. The M checkpoint ensures that all the components required for cell division are available. If it fails, the cell cycle will be inhibited.
a. The M checkpoint checks for proper attachment of sister chromatids. If it fails, then cells may undergo nondisjunction of chromosomes.
*b. G1 Checkpoint
*c. G2 Checkpoint
*d. G1 Checkpoint
During meiosis I, pairs of homologous chromosomes align randomly along the metaphase plate before being separated. This process helps generate genetic variation in the offspring of sexual reproduction. Which of the following best explains how the random alignment of homologous chromosomes during meiosis helps generate varied offspring?
a. Random alignment results in the formation of gametes that contain different numbers of chromosomes.
b. Random alignment increases the likelihood of crossing over between non-sister chromatids.
c. Random alignment results in the formation of some diploid and some haploid gametes.
d. Random alignment increases the number of possible chromosome combinations in the gametes.
d. Random alignment increases the number of possible chromosome combinations in the gametes.
*When homologous chromosomes align on the metaphase plate, their arrangement is random and independent of one another. This results in different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes segregating into different gametes, which increases genetic diversity in the offspring of sexual reproduction.
Which of the following is correct about DNA transcription?
a.The transcript is identical to both the coding and template strand.
b. The transcript is identical/similar to the template strand and complementary to the coding strand.
c. The transcript is identical/similar to the coding strand and complementary to the template strand.
d. None of the above.
c. The transcript is identical/similar to the coding strand and complementary to the template strand.
Sickle cell anemia is a blood disorder caused due to a mutation in the protein Hemoglobin. This occurs because valine is present instead of glutamic acid.
Normal: CCU - GAA- GAA
Mutation: CCU - GUA - GAA
Which mutation has occurred?
a. Silent mutation
b. missense muation
c. nonsense mutation
d. frameshift mutation
b. missense muation
In camellia flowers, petal color is controlled by codominance. When a red flower is crossed with a white flower, all of the offspring are covered in both red and white petals. A scientist crosses a red flower (RR) with a red-and-white (RW) flower. What are the predicted phenotypes of their offspring?
a. All of the offspring will have red-and-white petals.
b. All of the offspring will have red petals.
c. 75% of the offspring will be red, 25% of the offspring will be white.
d. 50% off the offspring will be red, 50% of the offspring will be red-and-white.
d. 50% off the offspring will be red, 50% of the offspring will be red-and-white.