Diabetes
Inflammation
Infection
Cancer
Random
100

Genevieve has diabetes type 1 and receives insulin for glycemic control. She tells the nurse that she likes to have a glass of wine with dinner. What will the best plan of the nurse for client education include?


  •  A. The alcohol could cause pancreatic disease.
  •  B. The alcohol could cause serious liver disease.
  •  C. The alcohol could predispose you to hypoglycemia.
  •  D. The alcohol could predispose you to hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: C. The alcohol could predispose you to hypoglycemia.

Alcohol can potentiate hypoglycemic, not hyperglycemic, effects in the client. When the client drinks alcohol, the alcohol can inhibit the liver’s ability to release glucose into the blood. This can be particularly significant for people on stronger medication such as insulin because it can mean that the liver is not able to release enough glycogen to keep the blood glucose levels from going too low under the influence of insulin in the body.

  • Option A: Alcohol can cause pancreatic disease, but the client’s pancreas is not producing any insulin currently. Alcohol abuse is a well-recognized association of both acute and chronic pancreatitis, with repeated attacks of alcohol-induced acute pancreatic necroinflammation leading to chronic disease. The risk of developing pancreatitis increases with increased consumption of alcohol.
  • Option B: Alcohol can cause liver disease, but the more immediate concern is hypoglycemia. Moderate amounts of alcohol may cause blood sugar to rise, excess alcohol can actually decrease your blood sugar level – which can be dangerous for people with T1D.
  • Option D: People with T1D should only drink while eating food. Beer and sweet wine contain carbohydrates and may raise blood sugar. People may overeat when drinking alcohol which also can increase your BG.
100

A nurse is assessing an older client for the presence of infection. The client's temperature is 97.6° F (36.4° C). What response by the nurse is best?
a. Assess the client for more specific signs.
b. Conclude that an infection is not present.
c. Document findings and continue to monitor.
d. Request the primary health care provider order blood cultures

ANS: A
Because older adults have decreased immune function, including reduced neutrophil function, fever may not be present during an episode of infection. The nurse would assess the client for specific signs of infection. Documentation needs to occur, but a more thorough assessment comes first. Blood cultures may or may not be needed depending on the results of further assessmen

100

 A primary health care provider notifies the nurse that a client has a "bandemia." What action does the nurse anticipate?
a. Administer antibiotics.
b. Place the client in isolation.
c. Administer IV leukocytes.
d. Obtain an immunization history.

ANS: A
A bandemia, or shift to the left, in the white count differential means that an acute, continuing infection has placed so much stress on the immune system that the most numerous type of neutrophil in circulation are immature, or band cells. The nurse would anticipate administering antibiotics. The client may or may not need isolation. Leukocyte infusion and immunization history are not relevant.

100

The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
A)Stool softeners are contraindicated.
B)Laxatives should be taken daily.
C)Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily.
D)Restrict calcium intake. 

C - The nurse should identify patients at risk for hypercalcemia, assess for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, and educate the patient and family. The nurse should teach at-risk patients to recognize and report signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia and encourage patients to consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily unless contraindicated by existing renal or cardiac disease. Also, the nurse should explain the use of dietary and pharmacologic interventions, such as stool softeners and laxatives for constipation, and advise patients to maintain nutritional intake without restricting normal calcium intake.

100

Harry is a diabetic patient who is experiencing a reaction to alternating periods of nocturnal hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. The patient might be manifesting which of the following?


  •  A. Uncontrolled diabetes
  •  B. Somogyi phenomenon
  •  C. Brittle diabetes
  •  D. Diabetes insipidus

Correct Answer: B. Somogyi phenomenon

The Somogyi phenomenon manifests itself with nocturnal hypoglycemia, followed by a marked increase in glucose and an increase in ketones. The Somogyi phenomenon states that early morning hyperglycemia occurs due to a rebound effect from late-night hypoglycemia.

  • Option A: Uncontrolled diabetes is when blood sugar levels are consistently above 180 ml/dl or higher. It can lead to life-threatening complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), heart attack, or stroke. Chronically high blood sugar levels can damage nerves, blood vessels, and vital organs.
  • Option C: Brittle diabetes is diabetes that’s especially difficult to manage and often disrupts everyday life. People with brittle diabetes have severe swings in blood glucose (blood sugar). The swings can cause frequent episodes of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar).
  • Option D: Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a disease process that results in either decreased release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH, also known as vasopressin or AVP) or decreased response to ADH, causing electrolyte imbalances.
200

During the morning rounds, Nurse AJ accompanied the physician in every patient’s room. The physician writes orders for the client with diabetes mellitus. Which order would the nurse validate with the physician?


  •  A. Use Humalog insulin for sliding scale coverage.
  •  B. Metformin (Glucophage) 1000 mg per day in divided doses.
  •  C. Administer regular insulin 30 minutes prior to meals.
  •  D. Lantus insulin 20U BID.

Correct Answer: D. Lantus insulin 20U BID.

Lantus insulin is usually prescribed once a day so an order for BID dosing should be validated with the physician. Lantus is designed to give a steady level of insulin over 24 hours, even when you are not eating such as between meals and overnight. This helps keep blood glucose levels consistent during the day and at night.

  • Option A: Humalog insulin can be prescribed for sliding scale coverage. The use of Humalog includes correcting the high blood sugar levels just before mealtime. For this aspect, a sliding scale is used to identify the needed amount of insulin that the patients must take.
  • Option B: Metformin (Glucophage) is often prescribed in divided doses of 1000 mg per day. Metformin is an oral medication typically dosed from 500 to 2550 mg per day and administered with a meal to decrease GI upset. The daily dose is often titrated weekly in increments of 500 mg or 850 mg to reduce this risk.
  • Option C: Regular insulin is administered 30 minutes before meals. Insulin, regular when administered subcutaneously, should be injected 30 to 40 minutes before each meal. Avoid cold injections. The injection is in the buttocks, thighs, arms, or abdomen; it is necessary to rotate injection sites to avoid lipodystrophy.
200

A clinic nurse is working with an older client. What action is most important for preventing infections in this client?
a. Assessing vaccination records for booster shot needs b. Encouraging the client to eat a nutritious diet
c. Instructing the client to wash minor wounds carefully
d. Teaching hand hygiene to prevent the spread of microbes

ANS: A
Older adults may have insufficient antibodies that have already been produced against microbes to which they have been exposed. Therefore, older adults need booster shots for many vaccinations they received as younger people. A nutritious diet, proper wound care, and hand hygiene are relevant for all populations.

200

The public health nurse is teaching community members about the reasons to get an annual flu shot. Which reason should the nurse include? (select all that apply)
A. People without health insurance are at higher risk of getting the flu
B. The predominant flu virus strain changes from year to year
C. Infants, young children, and people aged 50 or older are more likely to get the flu
D. The new vaccine has specific antigens predicted for that year
E. People living in apartment buildings have a higher probability of getting the flu

B. the predominant flu virus strain changes from year to year
C. Infants, young children, and people age 50 or older are more likely to get the flu
D. The new vaccine has specific antigens predicted for the that year

200

A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patients family and friends?
A)Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case theres a negative outcome.
B)Make sure she doesnt eat any food in the 24 hours before the procedure.
C)Wear a hospital gown when you go into the patients room.
D)Do not visit if youve had a recent infection.

D - Before HSCT, patients are at a high risk for infection, sepsis, and bleeding. Visitors should not visit if they have had a recent illness or vaccination. Gowns should indeed be worn, but this is secondary in importance to avoiding the patients contact with ill visitors. Prolonged fasting is unnecessary. Negative outcomes are possible, but the procedure would not normally be so risky as to require the family to gather at the bedside.

200

A nurse learning about antibody-mediated immunity learns that the cell with the most direct role in this process begins development in which tissue or organ?
a. Bone marrow
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Tonsils

ANS: A
The B-cell is the primary cell in antibody-mediated immunity and is released from the bone marrow. These cells then travel to other organs and tissues, known as the secondary lymphoid tissues for B-cells.

300

Gary has diabetes type 2. Nurse Martha has taught him about the illness and evaluates learning has occurred when the client makes which statement?


  •  A. "My cells have increased their receptors, but there is enough insulin."
  •  B. "My peripheral cells have increased sensitivity to insulin."
  •  C. "My beta cells cannot produce enough insulin for my cells."
  •  D. "My cells cannot use the insulin my pancreas makes."

Correct Answer: D. “My cells cannot use the insulin my pancreas makes.”

With type 2 diabetes mellitus, the pancreas produces insulin, but the cells cannot use it. T2DM is an insulin-resistance condition with associated beta-cell dysfunction. Initially, there is a compensatory increase in insulin secretion, which maintains glucose levels in the normal range. As the disease progresses, beta cells change, and insulin secretion is unable to maintain glucose homeostasis, producing hyperglycemia.

  • Option A: There is a decrease, not an increase, in receptor sites with type 2 diabetes. Most of the patients with T2DM are obese or have a higher body fat percentage, distributed predominantly in the abdominal region. This adipose tissue itself promotes insulin resistance through various inflammatory mechanisms, including increased FFA release and adipokine dysregulation.
  • Option B: Peripheral cells have a decreased, not an increased, sensitivity to insulin. The beta cells continue to produce insulin with type 2 diabetes. In T2DM, the response to insulin is diminished, and this is defined as insulin resistance. During this state, insulin is ineffective and is initially countered by an increase in insulin production to maintain glucose homeostasis, but over time, insulin production decreases, resulting in T2DM.
  • Option C: Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) accounts for 5% to 10% of DM and is characterized by autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of the pancreas. As a result, there is an absolute deficiency of insulin.
300
What are the stages of sepsis

SIRS

Sepsis

Severe Sepsis

Septic Shock

300

During HIV infection
a. reverse transcriptase helps HIV fuse with the CD4+ T cell.
b. HIV RNA uses the CD4+ T cell's mitochondria to replicate.
c. the immune system is impaired predominantly by the eventual widespread destruction of CD4+ T cells.
d. a long period of dormancy develops during which HIV cannot be found in the blood and there is little viral replication.

Correct answer: c

Immune dysfunction in HIV disease is caused predominantly by damage to and destruction of CD4+ T cells (i.e., T helper cells or CD4+ T lymphocytes).

300

A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
A)Pruritis (itching)
B)Nausea and vomiting
C)Altered glucose metabolism
D)Confusion

B - Nausea and vomiting, the most common side effects of chemotherapy, may persist for as long as 24 to 48 hours after its administration. Antiemetic drugs are frequently prescribed for these patients. Confusion, alterations in glucose metabolism, and pruritis are not common adverse effects.

300

What type of isolation is TB?

Airborne

400

A 50-year-old widower is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and complaints of rapid-onset weight loss, elevated blood glucose levels, and polyphagia. The gerontology nurse should anticipate which of the following secondary medical diagnoses?


  •  A. Impaired glucose tolerance
  •  B. Gestational diabetes mellitus
  •  C. Pituitary tumor
  •  D. Pancreatic tumor

Correct Answer: D. Pancreatic tumor

The onset of hyperglycemia in older adults can occur more slowly. When the older adult reports rapid-onset weight loss, elevated blood glucose levels, and polyphagia, the healthcare provider should consider pancreatic tumors. Weight loss occurs in about 90% of patients. Approximately 90% of all cases of pancreatic cancer are among people over 55 years of age.

  • Option A: These patients are usually asymptomatic since they have prediabetes. The family history of diabetes and any previous history of gestational diabetes mellitus should be obtained. If they are diabetic, they will present with polyuria, polydipsia, infections, and neuropathy.
  • Option B: The clinical features of gestational diabetes mellitus can be varied. The disproportionate weight gain, obesity, and elevated BMI can be suggestive features. The diagnosis is established by the laboratory screening method at the 24 to 28 weeks of pregnancy.
  • Option C: Pituitary microadenoma is usually an incidental finding on MRI head. Patients are asymptomatic unless the tumor is hormonally active. Pituitary macroadenoma presents with mass effects and potentially hormonal deficiency or hormonal excess.
400

The nurse understands that which type of immunity is the longest acting?
a. Artificial active
b. Inflammatory
c. Natural active
d. Natural passive

ANS: C
Natural active immunity is the most effective and longest acting type of immunity. Artificial and natural passive do not last as long. "Inflammatory" is not a type of immunity.

400

The patient is diagnosed with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) infection in a surgical wound. What infection precautions should the nurse use to best prevent transmission of the infection to others?

A. Droplet precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions

B

Contact precautions are used to minimize the spread of pathogens that are acquired from direct or indirect contact. Droplet precautions are used with pathogens that are spread through the air at close contact and that affect the respiratory system or mucous membranes (e.g., influenza, pertussis). Airborne precautions are used if the organism can cause infection over long distances when suspended in the air (e.g., tuberculosis, rubeola). Standard precautions are used with all patients and included in the transmission-based precautions above.

400

The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
A)Impaired nutritional status
B)Cognitive changes
C)Diarrhea
D)Alopecia

A - Alterations in oral mucosa, change and loss of taste, pain, and dysphasia often occur as a result of radiotherapy to the head and neck. The patient is at an increased risk of impaired nutritional status. Radiotherapy does not cause cognitive changes. Diarrhea is not a likely concern for this patient. Radiation only results in alopecia when targeted at the whole brain; radiation of other parts of the body does not lead to hair loss.

400

A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patients skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?
A)Liver function tests (LFTs)
B)Complete blood count (CBC)
C)Platelet count
D)Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

A - Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice and the liver is a common organ affected by metastatic disease. An LFT should be done to determine if the liver is functioning. A CBC, platelet count and tests of renal function would not directly assess for liver disease.

500

An ailing 70-year-old woman with a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus has been ill with pneumonia. The client’s intake has been very poor, and she is admitted to the hospital for observation and management as needed. What is the most likely problem with this patient?


  •  A. Insulin resistance has developed.
  •  B. Diabetic ketoacidosis is occurring.
  •  C. Hypoglycemia unawareness is developing.
  •  D. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome.

Correct Answer: D. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome.

Illness, especially with the frail elderly patient whose appetite is poor, can result in dehydration and HHNS. The most frequent reason for this complication is infection. The infectious process in the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary systems can act as the causative factor. The reason for this is the insensible water loss and the release of endogenous catecholamines. Approximately 50% to 60% of HHS is attributable to infectious etiology.

  • Option A: Insulin resistance usually is indicated by a daily insulin requirement of 200 units or more. Insulin resistance is primarily an acquired condition related to excess body fat, though genetic causes are identified as well. The clinical definition of insulin resistance remains elusive as there is not a generally accepted test for insulin resistance.
  • Option B: Diabetic ketoacidosis, an acute metabolic condition, usually is caused by absent or markedly decreased amounts of insulin. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonemia. It is a life-threatening complication of diabetes and is typically seen in patients with type-1 diabetes mellitus, though it may also occur in patients with type-2 diabetes mellitus.
  • Option C: In patients who do not have diabetes, hypoglycemia is uncommon, but when it occurs, there are a few major causes of hypoglycemia: pharmacologic, alcohol, critical illness, counter-regulatory hormone deficiencies, and non-islet cell tumors.
500

The nurse working with clients who have autoimmune diseases understands that what component of cell-mediated immunity is the problem?
a. CD4+ cells
b. Cytotoxic T-cells
c. Natural killer cells
d. Regulator T-cells

ANS: D
Regulator T-cells help prevent hypersensitivity to one's own cells, which is the basis for autoimmune disease. CD4+ cells are also known as helper/inducer cells, which secrete cytokines. Natural killer cells have direct cytotoxic effects on some non-self cells without first being sensitized. Regulator T-cells have an inhibitory action on the immune system. Cytotoxic T-cells are effective against self cells infected by parasites such as viruses or protozoa

500

A parent does not want their child to have any extra immunizations for diseases that no longer occur. What teaching about immunization should the nurse provide this mother?

A. There is currently no need for those older vaccines.
B. There is a reemergence of some of the infections, such as pertussis.
C. There is no longer an immunization available for some of those diseases.
D. The only way to protect your child is to have the federally required vaccines.

B

Teaching the parent that some of the diseases are reemerging and the damage they can do to her child gives the mother the information to make an informed decision. The immunizations still exist and do protect individuals. 

500

The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?
A)Monthly self-breast exams
B)Smoking cessation
C)Annual colonoscopies
D)Monthly testicular exams

B - Cancer is second only to cardiovascular disease as a leading cause of death in the United States. Although the numbers of cancer deaths have decreased slightly, more than 570,000 Americans were expected to die from a malignant process in 2011. The leading causes of cancer death in the United States, in order of frequency, are lung, prostate, and colorectal cancer in men and lung, breast, and colorectal cancer in women, so smoking cessation is the health promotion initiative directly related to lung cancer.

500

A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patients nutritional needs?
A)Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV
B)TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter
C)Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds
D)Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion

B - If malabsorption is severe, or the cancer involves the upper GI tract, parenteral nutrition may be necessary. TPN is administered by way of a central line, not a peripheral IV. An NG would be contraindicated for this patient. Long-term NPO status would result in malnutrition.