Culture Vulture
Life's Flow
Getting the tweakment
Body Invaders Anonymous
The "What the heck?" Category
100

What are some types of complimentary medicine? 

Allopathy: Also known as conventional or Western medicine, it uses drugs, surgery, and other interventions to treat symptoms and diseases. It is evidence-based and widely practiced in hospitals and clinics.

Acupressure: A traditional Chinese therapy that involves applying pressure to specific points on the body to relieve pain, reduce stress, and promote healing without needles or medication.

Reflexology: A practice based on the idea that certain points on the feet, hands, and ears correspond to organs and systems in the body. Pressure applied to these areas is believed to promote overall health and relaxation.

Other Practices (briefly mentioned):

  • Acupuncture: Uses thin needles inserted into specific body points to balance energy (Qi).

  • Homeopathy: A system that uses highly diluted substances to trigger the body’s natural healing.

  • Ayurveda: An ancient Indian practice using diet, herbs, and bodywork to balance the body’s energies (doshas).

100

What are the symptoms of fluid volume deficit (dehydration)?

dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate

100

Name 3 ways to assess and treat. 


  1. Observation – Watch for signs/symptoms; adjust care based on behavior.

  2. Vital Signs Monitoring – Check pulse, respiration, temperature; treat abnormalities (e.g., fever with antipyretics).

  3. Pain Assessment Tools – Use scales (e.g., 0–10); manage with medication or non-drug methods.



100

What type of isolation precautions are used in addition to Standard Precautions for specific diagnoses to prevent the spread of infections?

A. Droplet Precautions (e.g., influenza, whooping cough)
B. Airborne Precautions (e.g., tuberculosis, measles, chickenpox)
C. Contact Precautions (e.g., Clostridium difficile, MRSA)
D. All of the above

D.

100

Which of the following are essential components of a comprehensive respiratory system assessment?

A) Inspection of the chest for shape and symmetry, palpation to assess for tenderness and symmetrical chest expansion, and auscultation of lung sounds.
B) Review of the patient's dietary habits, palpation of the abdominal area, and assessment of reflexes.
C) Checking peripheral pulses, evaluating capillary refill, and assessing skin turgor.
D) Measurement of blood pressure, temperature, and weight.

A) Inspection of the chest for shape and symmetry, palpation to assess for tenderness and symmetrical chest expansion, and auscultation of lung sounds

Explanation

A thorough respiratory assessment encompasses several key areas:

  • Inspection: Observing the patient's breathing pattern, skin color, level of consciousness, and the shape and symmetry of the chest are crucial initial steps.
  • Palpation: Palpating the chest can reveal tenderness, masses, crepitus (a crackling sensation), and assess symmetrical chest expansion.
  • Auscultation: Listening to breath sounds through a stethoscope is vital for identifying normal and adventitious (abnormal) lung sounds, such as crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi.
200

What are important considerations for a nurse when caring for a patient from a different culture, and how can factors such as culture shock, assimilation, ethnocentrism, and potential cultural conflicts impact patient care?

A. Always assume the patient will adapt quickly to hospital routines regardless of culture.
B. Recognize and respect cultural differences, be aware of personal biases, and provide culturally competent care to build trust and improve outcomes.
C. Avoid asking about the patient’s cultural beliefs to prevent uncomfortable conversations.
D. Focus only on the medical diagnosis; cultural differences are not relevant to nursing care.  

Correct Answer: B
It emphasizes cultural awareness, respectful communication, and culturally competent care, which are essential in nursing practice.

200

A patient presents to the emergency department with severe dehydration due to prolonged vomiting and diarrhea. The healthcare provider orders an IV fluid for resuscitation. Based on the patient's condition and the principles of fluid movement, which type of IV fluid would the nurse anticipate administering?

a) Hypotonic solution (e.g., 0.45% Normal Saline)
b) Hypertonic solution (e.g., 3% Sodium Chloride)
c) Isotonic solution (e.g., 0.9% Normal Saline)
d) Colloid solution (e.g., Albumin)

 C) Isotonic solution (e.g., 0.9% Normal Saline)

Rationale: Isotonic solutions are the fluid of choice for resuscitation in cases of dehydration, hypovolemia, and hemorrhage because they expand the extracellular fluid volume without causing significant fluid shifts into or out of cells. Hypotonic solutions could worsen the dehydration by shifting fluid into the cells, and hypertonic solutions could further dehydrate cells. Colloids are typically reserved for more severe conditions like shock.

200

Which of the following describes the correct pairing of signs/symptoms and treatment for hypocalcemia (low blood calcium) versus hypercalcemia (high blood calcium)?

A. Hypocalcemia: Tetany and muscle spasms; Treated with intravenous fluids and loop diuretics.
B. Hypercalcemia: Confusion, constipation, and kidney stones; Treated with calcium supplements and vitamin D analogs.
C. Hypocalcemia: Numbness and tingling in extremities and face; Treated with intravenous calcium gluconate and vitamin D supplements.
D. Hypercalcemia: Muscle cramps and brittle nails; Treated with bisphosphonates and increased dietary calcium.

C.

200

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client diagnosed with mononucleosis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

A. "I should get plenty of rest."
B. "I will drink plenty of fluids."
C. "I can return to playing contact sports next week."
D. "I will take acetaminophen for my fever and sore throat."

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Patients with mononucleosis should avoid contact sports for at least 6 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture.

200

Which hormone is primarily responsible for increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys during hypovolemic shock?

a) Aldosterone
b) Renin
c) Angiotensin II
d) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

d) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

300

How to care for a Non-English speaking patient?

Show clear, respectful communication. Use professional medical interpreters rather than family members to ensure accurate understanding. Provide written materials in the client’s preferred language when possible. Be patient, use simple language, visual aids, and nonverbal communication to enhance understanding. Show cultural sensitivity and make the client feel respected and included in their care decisions.

300

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the care of intravenous (IV) lines?

A. Peripheral IVs are typically inserted by nurses and are used for short-term treatments.
B. Central lines, like PICC lines, can remain in place for weeks or months and require specific care, including maintaining dryness during bathing.
C. Flushing and locking are essential for both peripheral and central lines to prevent occlusion.
D. Central line dressing changes are not a significant factor in preventing infections compared to peripheral IVs.

D. Central line dressing changes are not a significant factor in preventing infections compared to peripheral IVs.


300

The immediate treatment of DKA and HHNS focuses on restoring fluid volume, correcting electrolyte imbalances, and lowering blood glucose levels. Which of the following is considered a primary treatment modality in the management of DKA and HHNS?

A) Oral hypoglycemic agents
B) Intravenous fluid replacement
C) Bicarbonate therapy for all patients
D) Dialysis

B) Intravenous fluid replacement

Explanation: Intravenous fluid resuscitation is a critical initial step in treating both DKA and HHNS to correct dehydration and improve circulation. Insulin therapy and electrolyte replacement are also important, but fluid replacement takes precedence. Oral hypoglycemic agents are used for long-term management, and dialysis is not a primary treatment for DKA or HHNS. Bicarbonate therapy is only recommended in severe cases of acidosis in DKA.

300

A positive serum antibody test indicates which of the following?

a) You have a current, active infection.

b) Your body has developed antibodies in response to a past infection or vaccination.

c) You are guaranteed to be immune to future infections.

d) Your body is actively fighting off a new infection.

The correct answer is b) Your body has developed antibodies in response to a past infection or vaccination.

Explanation

Antibody tests, also known as serology tests, look for the presence of antibodies in your blood. Antibodies are proteins produced by your immune system to help fight off infections or in response to a vaccine.

300

A patient presents with a significantly elevated AST and ALT on their CMP. This could indicate damage to which organ?

  • a) Kidneys
  • b) Heart
  • c) Liver
  • d) Pancreas

 AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are enzymes primarily found in the liver, according to UCSF Health. Elevated levels suggest liver cell damage or inflammation.

400

Guidelines for teaching a client (when patient is in distress / when patient is stable)

When the client is in distress:

  • Focus on stabilization: Prioritize helping the client regain calm and safety.
  • Active listening: Pay close attention to the client's verbal and non-verbal communication. Use empathetic statements to validate feelings, such as, "I hear how sad you are,".
  • Validation and empathy: Acknowledge feelings and experiences without judgment. Use phrases like, "It's completely normal to feel this way," to offer comfort.
  • Grounding techniques: Assist the client in focusing on the present moment and their senses to manage overwhelming emotions. Examples include:
    • Mindful breathing: Guide the client to slow their breathing and focus on each breath.
    • Engage senses: Help the client notice things they can see, hear, touch, smell, and taste to bring them back to the present moment.
  • De-escalation: Use a calm tone of voice and clear instructions to help reduce tension and aggression.
  • Safety planning: Collaborate with the client to develop a safety plan, especially if there's a risk of self-harm or violence. This can include identifying triggers and coping skills.
  • Simple, direct communication: Use clear, concise language and avoid jargon or complex explanations. 

When the client is stable:

  • Education and skill building: Focus on building coping skills, improving emotional intelligence, and enhancing overall well-being.
  • Explore and practice mindfulness: Discuss the principles of mindfulness and guide through practices, including formal meditation and integrating mindfulness into daily activities.
  • Develop coping strategies: Help the client identify and practice healthy coping skills for managing stress and difficult emotions. Some examples include:
    • Problem-solving: Address issues and seek solutions to build a sense of control and empowerment.
    • Self-reflection: Encourage regular evaluation of emotions and thoughts to recognize triggers and patterns.
    • Relaxation techniques: Guide through relaxation techniques, such as progressive muscle relaxation or guided imagery.
    • Hobbies and activities: Encourage engagement in enjoyable activities like exercise, hobbies, or social interactions to boost mood and energy levels.
  • Collaborative goal setting: Work with the client to define SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound) goals for their treatment plan and overall well-being.
  • Promote self-care: Emphasize the importance of self-care practices like a healthy diet, sleep, and exercise.
  • Encourage life integration: Help clients integrate mindfulness and coping strategies into their daily routines and life experiences.
  • Celebrate progress: Acknowledge and celebrate achievements to foster a sense of accomplishment and motivation. 
400

A nurse is administering a hypotonic solution to a patient with hypernatremia. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to a potential complication related to the fluid's movement?

a) Decreased urine output
b) Bounding peripheral pulses
c) Peripheral edema
d) Confusion in an older adult

 d) Confusion in an older adult

Rationale: Hypotonic solutions cause water to shift into cells, and if administered excessively, can lead to cellular edema, including cerebral edema. This can manifest as confusion, especially in older adults who may be more susceptible to fluid shifts. Administering hypotonic solutions to patients with an increased risk of intracranial pressure. Other options are signs of fluid volume excess, which is a potential complication of hypotonic solutions, but confusion directly relates to the effect of hypotonicity on cells.

400

 Which of the following interventions is crucial in the initial management of anaphylactic shock?

  • a) Administering intravenous fluids only
  • b) Administering epinephrine
  • c) Performing chest compressions
  • d) Treating with antibiotics

b) Administering epinephrine

400

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is the MOST important nursing intervention for this patient?



(A) Monitoring blood pressure
(B) Assessing urine output and specific gravity
(C) Checking for edema in the extremities
(D) Measuring daily weight 

The correct answer is (B). Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid overload, a common complication of CKD. Assessing urine output and specific gravity allows the nurse to monitor the drug's effectiveness and identify potential adverse effects, such as excessive fluid loss. Monitoring blood pressure (A) is important, but assessing urine output is more directly related to the medication's action. Assessing for edema (C) is also important but provides a less precise measure of fluid balance than urine output. Measuring daily weight (D) is a useful assessment but doesn't directly indicate how the diuretic is working

400

Your patient's CBC shows a Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL and Hematocrit of 29%. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with these findings?

  • a) Polycythemia
  • b) Iron-deficiency anemia
  • c) Thrombocytosis
  • d) Leukocytosis

 Low hemoglobin (normal range for females 11.6 to 15 grams/dL, for males 13.2 to 16.6 grams/dL) and hematocrit (normal range for females 35.5% to 44.9%, for males 38.3% to 48.6%) are indicative of anemia. Iron deficiency is a common cause of anemia.

500

What are some culture considerations for Jehovah’s Witness / people of Spanish descent / northern European descent

Jehovah’s Witnesses: This religious group places a strong emphasis on spiritual beliefs, including refusal of blood transfusions, celebrations like birthdays or holidays, and military service. They prioritize modesty, community, and following biblical teachings. In healthcare settings, respecting their beliefs—especially regarding blood products—is essential.

People of Spanish Descent: Often family-oriented, with strong ties to extended relatives. Respect for elders, traditional gender roles, and Catholic religious practices are common. Communication tends to be warm and expressive. Health beliefs may include the use of home remedies or folk healing practices alongside conventional medicine.

Northern European Descent: This group often values independence, privacy, punctuality, and direct communication. They may be less expressive emotionally and prefer a more reserved interaction style. In healthcare, they generally trust medical professionals and modern medicine, with a focus on individual responsibility for health.

500

What are the symptoms of fluid volume excess?

 swelling (edema), weight gain, high blood pressure, shortness of breath, and discomfort like cramping, headache, or abdominal bloating. In severe cases, it can lead to heart problems and difficulty breathing.

500

A patient presents to the emergency room with symptoms of extreme thirst, frequent urination, dry mouth, and confusion. Upon examination, their breath has a fruity odor, and laboratory tests reveal very high blood glucose levels (above 600 mg/dL or 33 mmol/L) and moderate to high ketones in their urine. Which of the following conditions is most likely based on this presentation?

A) Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
B) Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS)
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Pancreatitis

A) Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

Explanation: The presence of fruity-smelling breath and moderate to high ketones in the urine, alongside the other symptoms of hyperglycemia and dehydration, are classic signs of DKA. HHNS is characterized by very high blood sugar and dehydration but typically lacks significant ketones.

500

Here are some common signs and symptoms of infection and inflammation. Choose all that apply:

a) Fever
b) Redness
c) Swelling
d) Pain
e) Fatigue
f) Warmth
g) Chills
h) Loss of Function
i) Pus Formation (especially with bacterial infections)

  • Fever: A rise in body temperature often occurs as the body's attempt to create an unfavorable environment for pathogens (infection) or as part of a general inflammatory response.
  • Redness: Inflamed areas often appear red due to increased blood flow to the affected region, bringing immune cells and fluids to the site of injury or infection.
  • Swelling: Fluid buildup and accumulation of immune cells in the affected tissues lead to swelling, a hallmark of inflammation.
  • Pain: Inflammatory mediators can irritate nerve endings, causing pain and tenderness in the affected area, serving as a protective mechanism.
  • Fatigue: The body expends significant energy fighting off infection or managing inflammation, leading to feelings of exhaustion.
  • Warmth: Increased blood flow to the inflamed area makes it feel warm to the touch.
  • Chills: These can accompany fever as the body tries to regulate its temperature in response to infection or inflammation.
  • Loss of Function: Inflammation can interfere with the normal function of an affected body part, such as restricted movement in an inflamed joint.
  • Pus Formation: In bacterial infections, the accumulation of pus (dead cells and tissue) at the infection site is a clear indication that the body is fighting off bacteria.
500

What are the 5 types of drainages?


  1. Serous – Clear, watery fluid; normal in healing.

  2. Sanguineous – Bright red, bloody drainage; may indicate active bleeding.

  3. Serosanguineous – Pink, watery mix of blood and serous fluid; common in early healing.

  4. Purulent – Thick, yellow/green/brown pus; often a sign of infection.

  5. Foul Purulent – Similar to purulent but with a bad odor; strong indicator of infection.