“Drama Queens of the Immune System”
Q: Which hypersensitivity reaction is IgE mediated and involves mast cell degranulation?
A: Type I hypersensitivity
Q: Which laboratory value best reflects immune function in HIV?
A: CD4 count
Q: Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as what type of disorder?
A: Autoimmune disorder
Q: Tuberculosis primarily affects which body system?
A: Respiratory system
Q: Inflammatory bowel disease includes which two disorders?
A: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis
Q: COVID-19 primarily affects which body system?
A: Respiratory system
Q: An increase in the number of normal cells is called what?
A: Hyperplasia
Q: Leukemia primarily affects which type of cells?
A: White blood cells
Q: Prostate cancer risk increases most significantly with what factor?
A: Age
Q: Breast cancer most commonly begins in which tissue?
A: Mammary ducts
Q: Colorectal cancer most often develops from what precursor lesion?
A: Adenomatous polyps
Q: Lung cancer is most strongly associated with which risk factor?
A: Smoking
Q: The ABCDE rule is used to assess what condition?
A: Skin lesions
Q: An increase in the number of normal cells in response to stimulation is called what?
A: Hyperplasia
Infection & Inflammation: Patterns & Clues
A: Localized inflammation
Q: What clinical finding distinguishes a systemic hypersensitivity reaction from a localized reaction?
A: Involvement of multiple body systems (e.g., hypotension, wheezing)
Q: Why does a decreasing viral load indicate effective antiretroviral therapy?
A: Viral replication is suppressed
Q: Why does rheumatoid arthritis cause prolonged morning stiffness?
A: Inflammatory processes increase during periods of rest
Q: Why is airborne isolation required for clients with active TB?
A: TB is transmitted via airborne particles
Q: Why are clients with IBD at risk for nutritional deficiencies?
A: Impaired absorption due to intestinal inflammation
Q: Why does COVID-19 place clients at risk for impaired oxygenation?
A: Lung inflammation interferes with gas exchange
Q: Replacement of one mature cell type with another is known as what?
A: Metaplasia
Q: Why are leukemia clients at increased risk for infection?
A: Malignant white blood cells do not function normally
Q: Prostate cancer develops most commonly in which zone of the prostate?
A: Peripheral zone
Q: Why is breast cancer often hormone dependent?
A: Estrogen promotes tumor growth
Q: Why does colorectal cancer often present with minimal early symptoms?
A: Slow tumor growth
Q: Lung cancer primarily spreads through which system?
A: Lymphatic system
Q: Which skin cancer is most likely to metastasize?
A: Melanoma
Q: Replacement of one mature cell type with another due to chronic irritation is known as what?
A: Metaplasia
Q: Fever and tachycardia indicate which type of inflammatory response?
A: Systemic inflammation
Q: Why is epinephrine the priority treatment for anaphylaxis rather than antihistamines?
A: It rapidly reverses airway constriction and hypotension
Q: Why are clients with low CD4 counts at increased risk for opportunistic infections?
A: Impaired immune response
Q: Which activity is most appropriate for a child with rheumatoid arthritis?
A: Low-impact exercise such as swimming
Q: Why does TB impair oxygenation?
A: Lung tissue damage interferes with gas exchange
Q: Which symptom is more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis?
A: Bloody diarrhea
Q: Which assessment finding indicates worsening respiratory status in COVID-19?
A: Increased work of breathing
Q: A sore that does not heal is an early warning sign of what condition?
A: Cancer
Q: Pancytopenia affects which blood components?
A: RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
Q: Why does prostate cancer cause urinary symptoms?
A: Tumor enlargement compresses the urethra
Q: Which assessment finding is most concerning for breast cancer?
A: Nontender breast lump
Q: Rectal bleeding is an early manifestation of which cancer?
A: Colorectal cancer
Q: Why does lung cancer often cause weight loss and fatigue?
A: Increased metabolic demands of cancer
Q: Why does ultraviolet radiation increase skin cancer risk?
A: DNA damage to skin cells
Q: Why does dysplasia increase the risk for cancer development?
A: Cells grow abnormally and may progress to malignancy
Q: What does leukocytosis indicate about the body’s immune activity?
A: Activation in response to infection or inflammation
Q: Why does widespread vasodilation occur during anaphylaxis?
A: Histamine release from mast cells
Q: Which lab trend indicates progression of HIV disease?
A: Decreasing CD4 count
Q: Why should prolonged bed rest be avoided in rheumatoid arthritis?
A: It increases joint stiffness and muscle weakness
Q: Which clinical manifestations are most characteristic of active TB?
A: Chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats
Q: Why does chronic inflammation increase complications in IBD
A: Ongoing tissue damage
Q: Why are older adults at increased risk for severe COVID-19 illness?
A: Decreased immune response with aging
Q: Why does dysplasia increase cancer risk?
A: Cells grow abnormally and may become malignant
Q: Why do clients with leukemia experience anemia and bleeding?
A: Bone marrow replacement by malignant cells
Q: What screening test is commonly used to detect prostate cancer?
A: PSA (prostate-specific antigen)
Q: Why is early detection critical in breast cancer?
A: It improves survival rates
Q: How does colonoscopy reduce colorectal cancer risk?
A: Removal of polyps
Q: Which diagnostic test definitively confirms lung cancer?
A: Biopsy
Q: Which prevention strategy most effectively reduces skin cancer risk?
A: Limiting sun exposure and using sunscreen
Q: What cellular characteristic distinguishes anaplasia from other cellular changes?
A: Loss of cell differentiation
Q: Why are standard precautions required for all clients regardless of diagnosis?
A: Infection may be present before symptoms appear
Q: A client has facial swelling, wheezing, and hypotension after medication administration. What pathophysiologic process is occurring?
A: Systemic Type I hypersensitivity reaction (anaphylaxis)
Q: Why are live vaccines contraindicated in clients with advanced HIV?
A: Risk of infection due to immunosuppression
Q: Why is heat therapy beneficial before activity in clients with rheumatoid arthritis?
A: Improves circulation and decreases stiffness
Q: Why must a client with TB wear a surgical mask when leaving the room?
A: To prevent airborne transmission
Q: What is the primary nursing focus during an acute IBD flare?
A: Managing inflammation and preventing complications
Q: What is the priority nursing concern for hospitalized COVID-19 clients?
A: Maintaining adequate oxygenation
Q: Anaplasia indicates what cellular characteristic?
A: Loss of cell differentiation
Q: What is the primary cause of clinical manifestations in leukemia?
A: Bone marrow dysfunction
Why is prostate cancer often asymptomatic in early stages?
Slow tumor growth
Q: Why may younger women have more aggressive breast cancer?
A: Tumors tend to be diagnosed at more advanced stages
Q: Why is anemia common in colorectal cancer?
A: Chronic occult blood loss
Q: Why is lung cancer frequently diagnosed at advanced stages?
A: Early symptoms are often vague or attributed to smoking
Q: Why must suspicious skin lesions be evaluated promptly?
A: Early detection improves outcomes
Q: Why is wound healing often impaired in clients with altered cellular regulation?
A: Disrupted normal cell growth and regeneration
Q: A postoperative client develops an elevated WBC count and fever. Why is this concerning?
A: It may indicate developing infection
Q: Which immune system component responds first to a pathogen regardless of prior exposure?
A: Innate immunity
Q: A client who receives immunoglobulin after exposure to hepatitis gains protection through which type of immunity?
A: Passive immunity
Q: Why does passive immunity fail to provide long-term protection?
A: It does not stimulate memory cell production
Q: Vaccinations rely on which immune system characteristic to provide lasting protection?
A: Memory cell formation
Q: A client exposed to a pathogen for the first time produces IgM antibodies. This represents which immune response?
A: Primary immune response
Q: Why is the secondary immune response faster and stronger than the primary response?
A: Memory cells rapidly recognize the antigen
Q: Which type of immunity is produced when the body makes its own antibodies after exposure or vaccination?
A: Active immunity
Q: A newborn receives antibodies through breast milk. What type of immunity does this provide?
A: Passive immunity
Q: Why are older adults more susceptible to infections despite prior immunizations?
A: Age-related decline in immune system function
Q: Which immune system change in aging most directly affects vaccine effectiveness?
A: Decreased antibody production
Q: Why are immunocompromised clients at increased risk for opportunistic infections?
A: They cannot mount an effective immune response
Q: A client with a weakened immune system should avoid which type of vaccine?
A: Live vaccines
Q: Why do live vaccines pose a risk to immunocompromised clients?
A: The weakened organism may replicate and cause infection
Q: Which immune response is antigen-specific and improves with repeated exposure?
A: Adaptive immunity
Q: A nurse is teaching about immunizations. Which statement best explains why boosters are needed?
A: They reinforce immune memory and antibody levels