Name that class
Chemo Man
Calculations
Supportive Care
Monitoring
Drug interactions/ Pharmacogenomics
Rescue Me
Oncologic Concerns
Screening/ Prevention
Name that drug target
Staging/Diagnosis
Hormonoal therapy
200

doxorubicin, idarubicin

What are the anthracyclines?

200

doxorubicin, daunorubicin, and trastuzumab

What is cardiotoxicity?

200

This formula calculates smoking exposure risk

What is Pack year history = packs/day × years?

200

This class of drugs (e.g., filgrastim, pegfilgrastim) increases neutrophil counts but can cause bone pain - especially if given within 24 hours of chemotherapy. 

What are granulocyte colony stimulating factors (G-CSF)? 

200

This class requires baseline and periodic LVEF monitoring due to dose-dependent cardiomyopathy

What is an anthracycline?

DOUBLE POINTS:

This HER2-targeted therapy requires LVEF monitoring


200

Tamoxifen is converted into its active metabolite endoxifen by this hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme, which shows genetic variability affecting treatment response

What is CYP2D6?

200

Extravasation of anthracyclines such as doxorubicin requires this type of compress and this specific iron-chelating antidote to limit tissue injury.

What is a cold compress and dexrazoxane?

200

This term describes cancer that has spread from its original site to a distant organ or tissue.

What is metastases?

200

Use of sunscreen, hats, and long sleeves is recommended as primary prevention against this skin cancer arising from melanocytes.

What is melanoma?

200

trastuzumab

What is a HER2 inhibitor?

200

In oncology staging, TNM stands for these three descriptors of cancer spread

What are tumor, node, metastasis? 

200

The brand names of anastrazole and tamoxifen, these drugs are used in hormone receptor–positive breast cancer. 

What is Arimidex and Nolvadex/Soltamox?

400

cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin

What are the platinum compounds?

400

cisplatin, carboplatin, high dose methotrexate (> 500 mg/m2)

What is nephrotoxicity?

400

Used to assess infection risk during chemotherapy, this value is calculated by multiplying the total white blood cell count by the sum of segmented neutrophils and bands.

What is the Absolute Neutrophil Count?

400

A patient reports anxiety and nausea even before arriving for chemotherapy infusions, a conditioned response that develops from prior treatment experiences.

What is anticipatory nausea?

DOUBLE POINTS:

This benzodiazepine is commonly used in oncology settings to treat anticipatory nausea and vomiting via its anxiolytic and amnestic effects.

400

Ototoxicity detected on serial audiograms is a known dose-limiting adverse effect of these two platinum-based chemotherapeutic agents.

What are cisplatin and carboplatin?

400

Deficiency in this enzyme increases risk of severe neutropenia and diarrhea with irinotecan

What is UGT1A1?

400

For extravasation of vinca alkaloids, this type of compress is applied and vesicant injury may be treated with this antidote.

What is a warm compress and hyaluronidase?

400

A patient with a temperature of 102.4°F and an absolute neutrophil count of 450 cells/mm³ meets diagnostic criteria for this oncologic emergency.

What is febrile neutropenia?

400

This blood test is used in screening and monitoring for prostate cancer.

What is a prostate specific antigen (PSA)?

400

pembrolizumab, nivolumab, cemiplimab, dostarlimab

What is a PD-1 inhibitor?

400

This remains the gold standard for diagnosing cancer by allowing direct visualization of malignant cells under a microscope.

What is a tissue biopsy?

400

In hormone receptor–positive breast cancer, this agent is typically used in premenopausal patients, while this class of agents is preferred in postmenopausal patients due to ovarian estrogen production differences.

What is Tamoxifen and an Aromatase Inhibitor?

600

cyclophosphamide, melphalan, busulfan, these agents are cell cycle non-specific. 

What are alkylating agents? 

600

Peripheral neuropathy, marked by tingling in the fingers and toes, is a common side effect of these two classes of microtubule-inhibiting chemotherapy drugs.

What are the taxanes and vinca alkaloids?

600

Mosteller, Du Bois, and Haycock are all formulas used to estimate this clinical parameter based on height and weight.

What is the Body Surface Area?

600

When a regimen requires a 3-drug antiemetic premedication regimen consisting of an NK₁ receptor antagonist, a 5-HT₃ antagonist, and a corticosteroid, it is classified at this level of emetogenic risk.

What is a highly emetogenic chemotherapy regimen?

600

This term refers to the small number of cancer cells remaining in a patient during or after treatment that can be quantified using sensitive laboratory techniques such as flow cytometry or PCR

What is measurable residual disease?

600

Severe, sometimes fatal toxicity from these chemotherapy agents can occur in patients with deficiency of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase

What are 5FU and capecitabine?

600

This reduced folate is given with high-dose methotrexate to ‘rescue’ normal cells by bypassing dihydrofolate reductase inhibition and restoring folate pools.

What is leucovorin?

600

This mnemonic is used to evaluate suspicious pigmented skin lesions for melanoma

What is ABCDE?

DOUBLE POINTS (800) 

What does ABCDE stand for?

600

Prophylactic immunization with this vaccine reduces the risk of this cancer caused by oncogenic strains of human papillomavirus.

What is cervical cancer?

600

ipilimumab, tremelimumab

What is a CTLA-4 inhibitor?

600

In oncology, a performance score of 0 on this scale indicates a fully active patient, with higher values reflecting increasing disability.

What is an ECOG or Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group score?

600

The brand name and route of administration of fulvestrant, a selective estrogen receptor degrader used in metastatic breast cancer.

What is Faslodex IM?

800

ipilimumab, pembrolizumab, avelumab

What are immune checkpoint inhibitors?

800

Also called hand-foot syndrome, palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia is a painful redness and peeling of the palms and soles commonly caused by these two chemotherapy drugs.

What are capecitabine and 5FU?

800

Total Dose of Carbolpatin (mg) = Target AUC x (GFR + 25)

What is the Calvert equation?

800

This potentially life-threatening reaction seen with paclitaxel requires steroid and antihistamine premedication

What are hypersensitivity reactions?

800

Due to its severe teratogenicity, dispensing lenalidomide requires mandatory verification of this status under a REMS program.

What is a pregnancy test/pregnancy status?

800

Rasburicase is contraindicated in patients with deficiency of this enzyme due to the risk of acute hemolytic anemia and methemoglobinemia.

What is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

800

Mucositis from this antifolate chemotherapy agent may be managed symptomatically with a topical anesthetic such as a lidocaine oral rinse.

What is mucositis?

800

When initiating an immunotherapy, imaging may show a temporary worsening of tumor size or appearance.

What is pseudoprogession?

800

These noninvasive screening tests detect occult blood or tumor-derived DNA in stool to screen for this type of cancer.

What is colorectal cancer?

800

imatinib, nilotinib

What is a BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor?

800

This process analyzes tumor characteristics such as dMMR status, MSI-H status, and HER2 expression to guide targeted therapy selection.

What is biomarker testing?

800

Surgical castration is achieved with bilateral orchiectomy, while medical castration is accomplished using this class of agents. 

What are LHRH (or GnRH) agonists or antagonists?

1000

blinatumomab, teclistamab, talquetamab

What are bi-specific T-cell engagers?

1000

Hemorrhagic cystitis due to acrolein buildup is a known toxicity of these two alkylating agents and can be prevented with this uroprotective drug.

What are cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide and mesna?

1000

To limit the risk of irreversible cardiomyopathy, this anthracycline has a well-established lifetime cumulative dose cap of about 450–550 mg/m²

What is doxorubicin?

DOUBLE POINTS:

To reduce the risk of potentially fatal pulmonary fibrosis, this antitumor antibiotic is typically capped at a lifetime cumulative dose of about 400 units.

1000

To prevent or treat this condition the provider may prescribe allopurinol or rasburicase.

What is tumor lysis syndrome?

1000

Because of the risk of hepatitis B reactivation, patients must have a hepatitis B panel checked prior to receiving this CD20-targeting monoclonal antibody.

What is rituximab?

1000

This chemotherapy agent can potentiate the effect of warfarin, leading to elevated INR without dose adjustment.

What is capecitabine?

1000

Acute cholinergic toxicity from this topoisomerase I inhibitor is treated with atropine as part of supportive management.

What is irinotecan?

1000

A metabolic complication of cancer in which blood calcium levels become abnormally high due to tumor-related mechanisms

What is hypercalcemia of malignancy?

1000

This acronym refers to seven common warning signs that may indicate the presence of cancer, often used in public health education for early detection awareness.

What is CAUTION?

Double points (1000)

What does CAUTION stand for?

1000

dabrafenib and vemurafenib

What is a BRAF inhibitor?

1000

This international staging system is used for gynecologic cancers such as ovarian, cervical, and uterine cancers and is based on surgical and pathologic assessment of disease extent

What is the FIGO (International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics) system?

1000

Apalutamide, enzalutamide, and darolutamide are this class of drugs used in the treatment of castrate-resistant prostate cancer.

What are androgen receptor inhibitors?