Neuro Basics
Spinal Cord Injury
Myasthenia Gravis
Parkinson's Disease
Multiple Sclerosis
ALS
Medications
100

These fibers bring sensory information from the periphery into the CNS

What are afferent fibers?

100

This temporary state after SCI features loss of all function below the injury, negative rectal tone, and low BP/HR.

What is spinal shock?

100

In myasthenia gravis, antibodies target these receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

What are acetylcholine receptors?

100

Identify the cardinal triad of Parkinson’s disease.

What is tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia?

100

MS is characterized by damage to this structure on CNS neurons.

What is the myelin sheath?

100

ALS damages which two motor neuron pathways?

What are upper and lower motor neurons?

100

This dopaminergic combination is the mainstay for Parkinson’s; one component crosses the BBB to become dopamine, while the other prevents peripheral conversion to reduce side effects.

What is carbidopa/levodopa?

200

Upper motor neurons are located here, while lower motor neurons send axons out of the spinal cord to muscles.

What is the brain and spinal cord?

200

Secondary cord injury can occur due to ischemia from vasospasm, swelling, and release of damaging enzymes


What are vascular compromise (vasospasm), edema, and cellular mediator/enzyme release leading to secondary injury?

200

Weakness improving with rest and responsiveness to anticholinesterase medication suggests this diagnosis.

What is myasthenia gravis?

200

This medication combination increases CNS dopamine while reducing peripheral conversion.

What is carbidopa/levodopa?

200

MS lesions commonly develop in which part of the nervous system?

What is the CNS white matter?

200

Name one hallmark LMN finding in ALS.

What are fasciculations?

200

This anticholinergic helps normalize the acetylcholine–dopamine imbalance, reducing tremor/rigidity in parkinsonism.

What is benztropine?

300

Name two hallmark exam findings of upper motor neuron damage due to loss of brain modulation of spinal reflexes.

What is hyperreflexia and spasticity/increased tone?

300

In this incomplete SCI syndrome, arm weakness exceeds leg weakness due to central cord involvement near gray matter.

What is central cord syndrome?

300

Name the medication used as a diagnostic agent for MG.

What is edrophonium (Tensilon)?

300

Which medication class helps reduce tremors by blocking acetylcholine?

What are anticholinergics (e.g., benztropine)?

300

Name one classic visual symptom of MS.

What is optic neuritis?

300

ALS commonly begins affecting which body region?

What are the upper extremities?

300

Pyridostigmine treats MG by inhibiting this enzyme, increasing ACh at the neuromuscular junction—but watch for bradycardia, bronchospasm, and GI hyperactivity.

What is acetylcholinesterase inhibition?

400

In this motor system, most tracts cross to the contralateral side; in the other, most remain ipsilateral to modulate patterned movements. Name both.

What are the pyramidal (crossing) and extrapyramidal (mostly same side) systems?

400

Weeks after a high thoracic SCI, a patient develops severe headache, BP ~200/100, diaphoresis above and cool, pale skin below the lesion. Name the emergency and the common triggers you must rapidly address.


What is autonomic dysreflexia; common triggers are bladder distention, bowel impaction, or infection/other noxious stimuli?

400

This condition can occur with excessive dosing of pyridostigmine, producing dangerous symptoms such as muscle paralysis.

What is cholinergic crisis?

400

Name two possible adverse effects of dopaminergics such as levodopa.

What are hallucinations and dyskinesias?

400

Which MS subtype is characterized by clear relapses with periods of improvement?

What is relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)?

400

Which neurotransmitter is implicated in ALS-related neuronal injury?

What is glutamate?

400

Name two important contraindications to anticholinergics like benztropine that relate to pressure/flow in the eye and GI/GU tracts.

What is narrow-angle glaucoma or GI/GU obstruction?

500

A patient has flaccid paralysis, fasciculations, and absent reflexes in a limb after peripheral nerve injury. Identify the lesion level and resulting type of paralysis.

What is a lower motor neuron lesion causing flaccid paralysis with loss of reflexes and denervation atrophy?

500

After spinal shock resolves, a complete injury above T12 will show these reflex and tone patterns—whereas a complete injury at/below T12 shows the opposite.


Above T12 (UMN): return of reflexes, spasticity/hypertonia; T12 or below (LMN): loss of reflex arcs, flaccid paralysis.

500

A patient shows respiratory distress and worsening weakness. Distinguish between MG crisis vs. cholinergic crisis.

MG crisis involves worsening weakness from insufficient ACh, whereas cholinergic crisis involves excessive ACh leading to paralysis.

500

A patient on levodopa develops hallucinations. What are two safe management steps?

Reduce levodopa dose; eliminate interacting agents (MAOIs/Vitamin B6).

500

Explain why MS patients may initially regain function after a relapse.

Due to remyelination restoring partial conduction efficiency.

500

Identify the most common cause of death in ALS.

What is respiratory failure?

500

A patient on carbidopa/levodopa develops hallucinations and involuntary movements. Identify two plausible strategies to manage this and one drug or nutrient interaction to avoid.

Reduce dose and avoid MAOIs or vitamin B6.