Pre Eclampsia/ GDM
What is the underlying cause of preeclampsia?
Vasodilation
Vasoconstriction
Vasospasms
Vasopressin
Vasospasms
Name 2 causes of uterine atony?
Over extension of uterus- LGA, Polyhydramnios, Multiple
Overworked uterus- Multipara, Pitocin, Precep delivery
Magnesium sulfate
What does PDA stand for?
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
What is the most reliable indicator of fluid loss in a child?
weight
What supplement helps decrease the risk of neural tube defects?
Folic Acid
Which of the following blood pressures would be a concern for preeclampsia with severe features?
140/86
160/110
132/88
140/90
160/110
What is one cause of abruption?
Preeclampsia
Drug use
Trauma
In the transition to extrauterine life, the change from fetal circulation to adult circulation is initiated:
with the infant's first breath
within 2 hours of birth
during the first 12 hours after birth
within 24 hours of birth
with the infants first breath
•A mother gave birth 24 hours ago to a baby girl. The mother had a history of polyhydramnios. The baby has been having frothy saliva, drooling, choking, and coughing with feedings. The nurses suspects?
•A. Biliary atresia
•B. Gastroesophageal reflux
•C. Hernia
•D. Esophageal atresia
Esophageal atresia
A Nurse is teaching a client who is postpartum and has a new prescription for an injection of RH(d) immunoglobulin. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
A. It prevents the formation of RH antibodies in the newborn who are RH positive.
B. It destroys RH antibodies in newborns who are RH positive
C. It destroys RH antibodies in mothers who are RH negative
D. It prevents the formation of RH antibodies in mothers who are RH negative
D. It prevents the formation of RH antibodies in mothers who are RH negative
A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is being treated with magnesium sulfate IV. The client's respiratory rate is 10 and deep tendon reflexes are absent. which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. D/C the medication infusion
B. Prepare for an emergency c-section
C. Assess maternal blood glucose
D. place the client in Trendelenburg position
D/C the medication infusion
The nurse is preparing to care for four assigned patients. Which patient is at highest risk for hemorrhage?
Option 1
a primiparous patient who delivered an infant measuring small for gestational age
Option 2
a multiparous patient who delivered an infant measuring appropriate for gestational age
Option 3
a multiparous patient who delivered a large for gestational age infant after a Pitocin induction
Option 4
a primiparous patient who had received an epidural in labor
a multiparous patient who delivered a large for gestational age infant after a Pitocin induction
The structure that connects the umbilical vein and the inferior vena cava is called the:
ductus arteriosus
ductus venosus
foramen ovale
superior vena cava
ductus venosus
Which condition would the nurse suspect in a child with ribbon like stools that smell strong, constipation, and malnourishment, with visual peristalsis?
Dehydration
Hirschsprung disease
Irritable Bowel
Celiac disease
Hirschsprung disease
What do late decelerations mean?
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Which hormone in surplus is the cause of GDM?
Human Placental Lactogen
The most common causes of subinvolution or uterine atony are:
postpartum hemorrhage and infection
multiple gestation and postpartum hemorrhage
uterine tetany and overproduction of oxytocin
retained placental fragments and infection
retained placental fragments and infection
What is the cause of "blue spells" in Tetrolalogy of fallot?
A. Infants holding their breath during crying or eating.
B. When oxygen demand exceed blood supply mostly during crying or after feeding
C. No communication from right atrium to right ventricle.
D. localized narrowing near the insertion of the ductus arteriosus.
When oxygen demand exceed blood supply mostly during crying or after feeding
The nurse notes notable gross motor delays on an 8 month old child and the child still sits will pillow props. After speaking to the parents she also notes severe developmental milestone delays. What condition would the nurse suggest to the Primary care provider?
A. Guillain- Barre Syndrome
B. Myelomeningocele
C. Cerebral Palsy
D. Werdnig- Hoffman Disease
Cerebral Palsy
A nurse in the clinic is reviewing the health record of a client who is 28 weeks gestation. The history includes one pregnancy, terminated by elective abortion at 9 weeks, the birth of twins at 36 weeks, and a spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks. what is her GTPAL?
1. 4-0-1-2-2
2. 3-0-2-0-2
3. 2-0-0-2-0
4. 4-2-0-2-2
4-0-1-2-2
What is the cause of headache and blurry vision in preeclampsia?
Increase cerebral edema due to fluid leaking into the interstitial spaces
A patient delivered a 4550-gram (10 pound) neonate 2 hours ago. She has an IV of Lactated Ringers with 20 units of oxytocin (Pitocin). The nurse determines that the medication is achieving the desired effect when the following occurs (select all that apply):
an increase in urine output
an increased complaint of cramping
a decrease in lochia rubra
a firm uterine fundus
2, 3, 4
What are the Congenital heart defects with increased pulmonary blood flow?
Atrial Septal Defect
Ventricular Septal Defect
Atrioventricular Canal Defect
Patent Ductus Arteriosis
What are the 4 most common clinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?
clinical state that includes massive protein uria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipedemia, and edema. Typically occurs between 2-7 years. The pathogensis is not fully understood. The glomerular membrane is usually impermeable to albumin and other proteins but with nephrotic syndrome, the glomerular becomes permeable to protein, especially albumin.There may be a metabolic, bioechemical, physiochemical, or immune-mediated disturbance that causes the basement membrane to become permeable to protein. It is diagnosed by clinical manifestation. The edema is usually what prompts the family to seek medical attention. The hallmark sign is massive proteinuria.
What is the indirect coombs test?
A. It determines the baby will have hyperbilirubinemia
B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborns blood
C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mothers blood that have crossed the placenta
D. it determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborns blood
It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mothers blood. An indirect coombs test determines the presence of Rh antibodies. If the client has Rh negative blood, she does not produce Rh factor. Exposure to the Rh positive blood, such as from the positive fetus, could trigger the client to begin producing antibodies. these antibodies can cross the placenta and harm the Rh- positive fetus.