Assessment#1
Assessment#2
Implementation
Prevention
Medical History
100

Salivary gland duct obstructions in the floor of the mouth that increase/ decrease in size and resemble mucoceles or mucous cysts are called?

A. Irritation fibromas 

B. Radicular cysts 

C. Sialoliths 

D. Pyogenic granulomas 

E. Ranulas

What are Sialoliths?

100

What ASA classification would MOST accurately describe a patient with well-controlled hypertension and type 1 diabetes requiring insulin 4 times per day?

A. ASA I

B. ASA II

C. ASA III

D. ASA IV

What is ASA III?

100

All of the following curettes are used on the posterior dentition expect one. Which of the following is the exception?

A. Gracey 17/18

B. Gracey 5/6

C. Gracey 13/14

D. Gracey 7/8

What is Gracey 5/6?

100

The acid-etch procedure with dental sealant placement accomplishes what?

A. increased moisture control

B. decreased biological bacterial load

C. increased mechanical retention

D. increased chemical retention

What is increased mechanical retention?

100

A patient’s blood pressure reads at 136/82. What stage should this patient be classified as?

A. elevated BP

B. hypertension stage I

C. hypertension stage II

D. hypertensive crisis

What is hypertension stage I?

200

Clinical evidence supporting the need for non-surgical periodontal therapy includes 

A. bleeding on probing 

B. dental history

C. diagnostic study casts

D. gingival recession

What is bleeding on probing?

200

During a periodontal assessment of this patient, a 4mm pocket is detected on the distal surface of tooth #27. The gingival margin is located 2 mm occlusal to the CEJ. Which of the following correctly identifies the periodontal condition of this tooth?

A. pseudopocket

B. periodontal abscess

C. periodontal necrosis

D. clinical attachment loss

What is pseudopocket?

200

What type of scaler is best to use on implants? 

A. Titanium

B. Metal

C. Ceramic 

D. Stainless steel 

What is Titanium?

200

Due to the patient’s immunocompromised medical state, the dental hygienist decides to administer a pre-procedural rinse. Which of the following chemotherapeutic rinses would be MOST effective?

A. essential oils

B. chlorhexidine

C. stannouse fluoride

D. hypertonic saline solution

What is chlorhexidine?

200

How long should you wait to treat a patient after they have experienced a stroke or myocardial infarction?

A. 4 months

B. 6 months

C. 12 months

D. 18 months

What is 6 months?

300

During the intraoral assessment, a clinician notes a small (less than 1cm), raised growth present on the retromolar pad distal to tooth #31. Which of the following descriptions would be correct when documenting this discovery?

A. nodule 

B. pustule 

C. vesicle 

D. papule

What is papule?

300

Which of the following findings would necessitate retreatment with active periodontal therapy if discovered on a reevaluation during a periodontal maintenance care visit? 

A. Generalized bacterial plaque biofilm

B. Gingival inflammation 

C. Gingival recession 

D. Localized attachment loss of 2mm or more 

E. Gingival bleeding 

What is localized attachment loss of 2mm or more?

300

Which of the following is a contraindication of the use of an ultrasonic scaler?

A. implant

B. artificial joint

C. organ transplant

D. pacemaker

What is Pacemaker?

300

Which of the following tooth surfaces would be LEAST benefit from topical fluoride application?

A. lingual

B. mesial

C. distal

D. occlusal

What is occlusal?

300

What is the maximum recommended dose (MRD) of epinephrine for a healthy patient (ASA I)?

A. 0.1 mg

B. 0.2 mg

C. 0.3 mg

D. 0.4 mg

What is 0.2 mg?

400

During a periodontal assessment, a dental hygienist observes BOP at more than 30% of the sites, indicating generalized gingival inflammation. Which of the following is the MOST direct cause of this bleeding?

A. antibody migration into the gingival sulcus

B. increased vascular permeability due to inflammatory cell infiltration

C. loss of collagen fibers in the periodontal ligament

D. apical migration of the junctional epithelium

What is increased vascular permeability due to inflammatory cell infiltration?

400

While performing an intra oral exam on a patient, a distinct 2 to 3mm band of erythema is present along the free gingival margin. The patient has a history of HIV. What oral pathology is present in the oral cavity? 

A. Erythema multiforme

B. Linear gingival erythema

C. Verruca vulgaris 

D. Leukoedema

What is linear gingival erythema?

400

At what angle should you use an anterior sickle scaler?

A. 30-40 degrees

B. 50-60 degrees

C. 70-80 degrees

D. 90 degrees

What is 70-80 degrees?

400

Angular cheilitis is a result of a deficiency of which vitamin? 

A. Thiamin

B. Niacin

C. Folate

D. Riboflavin

What is Riboflavin?

400

Which of the following is a contraindication for dental treatment?

A. valvue replacement

B. COPD

C. stage I hypertension

D. uncontrolled arrhythmias

What is uncontrolled arrhythmias?

500

Which of the following is NOT a common oral manifestation of older adult patients?

A. abrasion

B. decreased pulp chamber size

C. increased sensitivity

D. decreased sensitivity

What is increased sensitivity?

500

A tooth demonstrates moderate bone loss, and a probe can enter the furcation but cannot pass though the roots. What is the classification of this furcation?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

What is Class II?

500

When should you utilize the After-Five's?

A. when scaling supragingivally

B. when scaling large calculus deposits

C. with 1-3 mm pockets

D. with 5+ mm pockets

What is 5+ mm pockets? 

500

Handwashing is the most effective strategy in the prevention of:

A. Environmental surface contamination 

B. Instrument contamination 

C. Infection and disease transmission 

D. Occupational hazards 

What is Infection and disease transmission?

500

An anxious patient is at a high risk for which of the following conditions?

A. Cardiac problems from increased sympathetic epinephrine 

B. Syncope 

C. Hyperventilation

D. All of the above 

What is all of the above?

(Cardiac problems from increased sympathetic epinephrine, Syncope, Hyperventilation)