12 Lead Mastery
Conduction and Electrophysiology
Ischemia; Infarction;
A and P
Cardio Pharm Cabinet
Hemodynamics and Shock
100

Regular narrow complex tachycardia at about 150; flutter waves are best seen in inferior leads and V1; and may be hidden in the QRS

What is atrial flutter with 2 to 1 AV conduction

100

This structure normally initiates the heartbeat; its intrinsic rate is about 60 to 100

What is the SA node

100

The pathophysiologic driver of angina is mismatch between oxygen supply and demand causing this

What is myocardial ischemia

100

First line medication for symptomatic bradycardia when no contraindication; it blocks vagal tone at the SA and AV nodes

What is atropine

100

Cardiac output = heart rate x this variable

What is stroke volume

200

ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in I and aVL

What is an inferior STEMI

200

This phase of the ventricular action potential is driven mainly by calcium influx and is the target for nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

What is phase 2; the plateau

200

In right ventricular infarction; preload dependence makes this medication class risky if hypotension is present

What are nitrates

200

For torsades de pointes; this medication is first line even if magnesium level is normal

What is magnesium sulfate

200

Beck triad is classically associated with this cause of obstructive shock

What is cardiac tamponade

300

ST elevation in V1 through V4 with reciprocal ST depression in II, III, and aVF

What is an anteroseptal STEMI from LAD occlusion

300

This interval represents ventricular depolarization plus repolarization; prolongation increases risk for torsades

What is the QT interval

300

This coronary artery most commonly causes inferior wall MI

What is the right coronary artery

300

In cardiogenic pulmonary edema with hypertension; this medication reduces preload and afterload by venodilation at low doses

What is nitroglycerin

300

In massive pulmonary embolism causing obstructive shock; the primary failing chamber is typically this one first

What is the right ventricle

400

Diffuse ST depression in multiple leads with ST elevation in aVR; especially when paired with hypotension or ongoing chest pain

What is left main or proximal LAD ischemia; or severe multivessel ischemia

400

This bundle branch block pattern shows RSR prime in V1 with a wide terminal S in leads I and V6

What is right bundle branch block

400

ST elevation in V1 to V4 with possible reciprocal inferior changes suggests occlusion in this artery territory

What is the LAD; anterior wall infarct

400

In pre-excited atrial fibrillation; avoid AV nodal blockers because they can accelerate conduction through accessory pathway; name one AV nodal blocker class to avoid

What are calcium channel blockers

400

In cardiogenic shock; lung findings and hemodynamics often include this; elevated left sided filling pressure and pulmonary edema

What is elevated Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure; pulmonary congestion

500

Horizontal ST depression in V1 to V3 with tall R waves and upright T waves; often with posterior pain pattern; and improved with V7 to V9 placement

What is a posterior myocardial infarction; posterior STEMI equivalent

500

In WPW; the accessory pathway bypasses the AV node; this produces this ECG feature in sinus rhythm

What is a delta wave; with short PR interval and widened QRS

500

Papillary muscle rupture after MI can cause sudden pulmonary edema because it produces this acute valve problem

What is acute mitral regurgitation

500

This antiarrhythmic is preferred for stable wide complex tachycardia due to sodium channel blockade and is specifically useful in AF with WPW when available by protocol

What is procainamide

500

A post MI patient becomes acutely dyspneic with frothy sputum; has new loud holosystolic murmur; hypotension; and rapidly worsening pulmonary edema; explain the most likely mechanical complication and the immediate hemodynamic priority in one phrase

What is papillary muscle rupture causing acute severe mitral regurgitation; prioritize afterload reduction and forward flow support while preparing for definitive surgical management