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Section 4
Section 5
Section 6
Section 7
Section 8
Section 9
100

Functions of the hypothalamus

Plays a part in the arousal or alerting mechanicsm

100

The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the __________ nervous system

Peripheral

100

Structure that is important to your sense of balance and equilibrium

crista ampullaris

100

The hypothalamus produces which hormone

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

100

The parathyroid hormone

increases the amount of calcium in the blood

100

When is a sputum specimen collected

In the early morning

100

Discharge planning should ideally begin as soon as a patient is admitted to the hospital, or even before for planned admissions, to ensure a smooth and safe transition back home or to another care setting.

When does discharge planning begin? the day before discharge, on the first day postoperatively, when the health care provider writes orders or shortly after admission. 

shortly after admission

100

The medical term for profuse sweating is?

A) Dyspnea

B) Eccycomosis

C) Diaphoresis

D) Cyanosis

C) Diaphoresis

100

What are the terminations of tube feedings considered at the end of life?

A) Active euthanasia

B) Holistic care

C) Passive euthanasia

D) Terminal care

C) Passive euthanasia

At the end of life, terminating tube feedings is considered a form of passive euthanasia, which involves allowing a patient to die naturally by withholding or withdrawing life-sustaining treatments, rather than actively causing death.

200

Blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are

The fluid in them continues to recirculate through the same vessels

200

Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of _____________.

artificial active immunity

200

Which part of a full stomach may prevent the diaphragm from moving downward, making it hard to take a deep breath

Fundus

200

Order of the segments of the small intestine

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

200

Which hormones tend to decrease the amount of urine produced

Antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone

200

How often should the nurse include repositioning/turning the older adult to prevent pressure injuries

Every 2 hours

200

When a patient demands to be discharged without the health care provider's orders what should the nurse have the patient sign?

A form exercising the patient's right

An informed consent

An advanced directive

A discharge against medical advice form (AMA)

A discharge against medical advice form (AMA)

200

A patient with Hepatitis has a yellow tinge to their skin. The nurse understands the most likely cause of jaundice is what?

A) Heart

B) Brain

C) Intestines

D) Liver

D) Liver

The yellow tinge, or jaundice, seen in hepatitis is caused by a buildup of bilirubin, a yellow-orange pigment, in the blood due to the liver's inability to process it effectively.

200

What should a nurse do before approaching a grieving family member?

A) Offer sympathy

B) Assess the level of resolution

C) Give assurance that the pain will pass

D) Encourage the family member to return to normal activities

B) Assess the level of resolution

Grief resolution is a process, not an endpoint, and involves acknowledging the loss, experiencing the pain, and finding new ways to live with the absence, rather than "getting over" it. It's about adapting to a new reality and finding meaning and purpose in life after a loss.

300

Loss of elasticity is a clinical sign of_________.

Dehydration

300

Substances are added to the urine in the distal and collecting tubules through what process_________.

Secretion

300

Hyperkalemia is an ______normal level of ______in the blood.

above; potassium

300

Which body fluid has the highest pH

arterial blood

300

Define blood alkalosis

is caused by an increase in base or a loss of acid

300

Nocturia is due to  ___________?

decrease in bladder capacity

300

To help prevent falls related to muscle weakness, what type of exercises should be selected for the aging patient?

Daily

Running

Aerobic 

Weight-bearing

Weight-bearing

300

An unnatural paleness of the skin is recognized as:

A) Sallow skin

B) Jaundice

C) Pruritus

D) Skin pallor

D) skin pallor

Skin pallor refers to a pale or whitish discoloration of the skin. It can be a temporary or chronic condition, and is often associated with a decrease in blood flow or red blood cell count.

300

A dying patient is using the call light frequently to ask her to perform simple tasks. The nurse recognizes this as a fear of 

A) increased pain

B) failure

C) abandonment

D) isolation

C) abandonment

Dying patients often fear abandonment, which can manifest as increased anxiety and a desire to avoid being alone.

400

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by ___________.

H2C03 deficit

400

When can dehydration become lethal

if a patient loses 20% of body fluid

400

What is the least amount of hourly urine output that the kidneys must produce to remove waste

30 mL

400

Obtaining a daily weight at the same time of day in the same clothing is a method for determining ______.

water balance

400

What should the nurse expect when assing the patient for respiratory alkalosis

muscle weakness

400

An older patient with COPD has a higher incidence of developing which age-related changes that will alter the ability to exchange air effectively?

Arthritis, osteomyelitis, kyphosis or osteoporosis

kyphosis

400

The healthcare provider is assessing a patient for a murmur. Which position should the nurse place the patient?

A) Sims

B) Prone

C) Lithotomy

D) Lateral Recumbent

D) Left lateral Recumbant

This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to hear low-pitched sounds like diastolic murmurs.

400

What should a nurse do to aid a dysphagic patient? Select all that apply:

A) Sit the patient upright

B) Reduce distraction during mealtime

C) Offer fluid from a straw

D) Thicken liquids

E) Cue the patient to swallow

A) sit patient upright B) Reduce distraction during mealtime D) Thicken liquids E) Cue the patient to swallow

400

A young nurse caring for a dying patient hastens through the care and leaves the room as quickly as possible. What reaction to the dying patient is the nurse exhibiting?

A) Anger

B) Anxiety

C) Withdrawal

D) Efficiency

C) Withdrawal


500

Hearing loss due to sensory changes of middle-aged adult

presbycusis

500

Failure to achieve ego integrity is termed ______.

Despair

500

Catheter care involves

cleansing the first 2 inches of the catheter with soap and water every shift

500

ileostomy stool is ______consistency

semiliquid stool

With an ileostomy, stool consistency is typically liquid to pasty because the large intestine, where most water absorption occurs, is bypassed, resulting in frequent, less formed output.

500

Which health professional has the responsibility for notifying the health care provider when labs deviate from normal values

Nurse

500

You observe a patient being tense and distracted. What does this behavior suggest as a common reaction to being hospitalized? 

relief about being cared for; fear of the unknown; feeling powerlessness or concern about cost

fear of the unknown

500

A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is termed?

Bradycardia

500

When communicating with a patient who has difficulty hearing. How should the nurse change their pattern of speech?

A) Speak very loudly

B) Speak rapidly

C) Lower the tone of voice

D) Raise the tone of voice

C) Lower the tone of voice

Use a Normal Tone of Voice: Don't shout or speak in a raised voice, as this can distort the sound of speech and make it harder to hear. 


500

Hearing loss is a sign of aging. What is the medical term

A) Otitis externa

B) Presbyopia

C) Otitis media

D) Presbycusis 


D) Presbycusis

Presbycusis, or age-related hearing loss, is a gradual, progressive hearing loss that occurs naturally with age, often starting in the 40s or 50s and affecting both ears, typically starting with high-frequency sounds. 

Otitis externa: inflammation of the external ear; swimmers' ear.

Otitis media: middle ear infection; inflammation and fluid buildup behind the eardrum.

Presbyopia: Presbyopia is a common age-related eye condition that affects the ability to focus on close objects.