Cardiovascular
Mental Health/Neuro/CNS
Respiratory
GI/GU/Reproductive
Wild Card: Infection, Endocrine, Pain, and Hematology Mix
100

Which antihypertensive medication causes a dry cough due to bradykinin buildup?

Answer: ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril)


Rationale: ACE inhibitors stop bradykinin breakdown → cough (ACE/ARB slides).

100

Which SSRI is commonly used for depression and carries a black box warning for suicidal ideation?

Answer: Fluoxetine.


Rationale: All SSRIs carry this risk (Mental Health Part 1 slides).

100

Which medication is used as a rescue inhaler during asthma attacks?

Answer: Albuterol.


Rationale: Short-acting beta-2 agonist (Respiratory slides).

100

Which medication is used to induce labor?

Answer: Oxytocin.


Rationale: Causes uterine contractions (L&D slides).

100

A patient receiving IV vancomycin develops flushing, itching, and hypotension during the infusion. What does the nurse anticipate is happening to the patient?

Answer: Redman Syndrome

Rationale: These findings indicate Red Man Syndrome; immediate action is to stop the infusion (Infection/Vancomycin slides).

200

A patient taking digoxin reports nausea and visual halos. What is the priority action?

Answer: Assess apical pulse and notify provider.


Rationale: These are signs of digoxin toxicity; check HR first (Glycosides/HF slides).

200

What should the nurse monitor when a patient starts lithium?

Answer: Sodium levels and hydration.


Rationale: Low sodium → lithium toxicity (MH slides).

200

Which respiratory drug class requires avoiding caffeine due to CNS stimulation?

Answer: Methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline).


Rationale: Additive CNS effects (Respiratory slides).

200

What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

Answer: Calcium gluconate.


Rationale: Competes with magnesium at neuromuscular junction (L&D slides).

200

Which endocrine medication can lead to lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal impairment?

Answer: Metformin.


Rationale: Metformin carries a serious risk of lactic acidosis in kidney dysfunction (Endocrine/Diabetes slides).

300

Which diuretic requires monitoring for ototoxicity, especially with rapid IV push?

Answer: Furosemide (Lasix).


Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause ototoxicity if pushed too fast (Diuretics slides).

300

Which medications require tyramine restriction to prevent hypertensive crisis?

Answer: MAOIs.


Rationale: Tyramine + MAOI can cause severe hypertension (Mental Health Part 2).

300

A patient using inhaled corticosteroids should be taught to do what after each use?

Answer: Rinse mouth.


Rationale: Prevents oral thrush (Respiratory slides).

300

Given IM after placental delivery, this medication treats postpartum hemorrhage but must be avoided in clients with hypertension due to the risk of hypertensive crisis.



What is methylergonovine?

300

Name the three classic signs that indicate life-threatening opioid toxicity.

Answer: Respiratory depression, coma, and pinpoint pupils.


Rationale: These symptoms represent the opioid overdose triad and require naloxone (Pain/Opioid Toxicity slides).

400

Which beta blocker is selective and safer for patients with asthma?

Answer: Metoprolol.


Rationale: Cardioselective beta-1 blocker → less bronchoconstriction risk (Beta Blockers slides).

400

What is a life-threatening adverse effect of antipsychotics like haloperidol?

Answer: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.


Rationale: High fever, rigidity, autonomic instability (MH slides).

400

Which medication class prevents asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation but does NOT treat acute attacks?

Answer: Leukotriene inhibitors (e.g., montelukast).


Rationale: Used for maintenance (Respiratory slides).

400

Which GU medication is used for urinary retention by increasing bladder contraction?

Answer: Bethanechol.


Rationale: Cholinergic agonist → stimulates bladder (GU content).

400

Which anticoagulant requires INR monitoring and has Vitamin K as its reversal agent?

Answer: Warfarin.


Rationale: Warfarin has numerous interactions and requires INR monitoring with Vitamin K for reversal (Hematology/Warfarin slides).

500

This is the priority nursing action when a client receiving a nitroglycerin drip reports a sudden severe headache and a drop in blood pressure.


What is slow the infusion rate / titrate down the nitro drip?

500

A patient on phenytoin has gum overgrowth and rash. What teaching is essential?

Answer: Good oral hygiene; report rash immediately.


Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is common; rash may mean SJS (Neuro/CNS slides).

500

Which anticholinergic inhaler should be avoided in patients with peanut allergies?

Answer: Ipratropium.


Rationale: Contains soy lecithin in older formulations (Respiratory slides).

500

A pregnant patient is taking iron supplements. What teaching is essential?

Answer: Take with vitamin C; avoid taking with calcium/dairy.


Rationale: Calcium decreases absorption; vitamin C increases it (Vitamins & Minerals).

500

A patient taking filgrastim (Neupogen) reports new onset of left upper quadrant pain. What serious complication should the nurse suspect?

Answer: Splenic rupture.


Rationale: Filgrastim can enlarge or rupture the spleen; new LUQ pain is a red flag (Hematology/Colony-Stimulating Factor slides).