Purple
Magic Mint
Periwinkle
Mauve
Lilac
100

A patient with a hiatal hernia is experiencing heartburn and regurgitation. Which nursing interventions are appropriate to alleviate the patient’s symptoms? (Select all that apply)

A. Encourage the patient to eat three large meals a day.

B. Advise the patient to avoid lying down for at least two hours after eating.

C. Suggest elevating the head of the bed by 6-12 inches.

D. Recommend the patient avoid spicy and acidic foods.

E. Instruct the patient to drink a glass of water immediately before bedtime.

B. Advise the patient to avoid lying down for at least two hours after eating.

C. Suggest elevating the head of the bed by 6-12 inches.

D. Recommend the patient avoid spicy and acidic foods.

100

A patient with acute gastritis is admitted to the hospital. What nursing interventions are appropriate to manage the patient's condition? (Select all that apply)


A. Administer antacids as prescribed.

B. Encourage a high-fiber diet.

C. Monitor for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding.

D. Promote the consumption of caffeine and alcohol in moderation.

E. Educate the patient on the importance of avoiding NSAIDs.

A. Administer antacids as prescribed.

C. Monitor for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding.

E. Educate the patient on the importance of avoiding NSAIDs.

100

A patient with diverticulitis is experiencing abdominal pain and has a fever. What dietary recommendations should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply)

A. Start with a clear liquid diet during acute episodes.

B. Gradually introduce a high-fiber diet once symptoms subside.

C. Avoid nuts and seeds

D. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids.

B. Gradually introduce a high-fiber diet once symptoms subside

C. Avoid nuts and seeds

D. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids.


100

A nurse is assessing a child suspected of having nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following early symptoms are indicative of this condition? select all that apply 

A. Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day

B. Edema 

C. Hematuria 

D. Hyperlipidemia 

A. Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day

B. Edema 

D. Hyperlipidemia 

100

Which of the following are risk factors for developing benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? select all that apply 

A. Age over 50 

B. caucasian

C. Smoking 

D. Family history of BPH 

A. Age over 50

D. Family history of BPH

200

A patient is receiving 1 unit of packed red blood cells. The unit of blood will be done at 1200. The patient is scheduled to have IV antibiotics at 1000. As the nurse you will:

A. Stop the blood transfusion and administer the IV antibiotic, and when the antibiotic is done resume the blood transfusion.

B. Administer the IV antibiotic via secondary tubing into the blood transfusion’s y-tubing.

C. Hold the antibiotic until the blood transfusion is done.

D. Administer the IV antibiotic as scheduled in a second IV access site

D. Administer the IV antibiotic as scheduled in a second IV access site

200

A client has a BUN of 68 mg/dL and a creatinine level of 6.0 mg/dL. The IV fluid is 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride with 40 mEq KCL @ 100 mL/hour. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take?

1. Encourage more protein in the diet.
2. Ambulate the client more to increase circulation.
3. Take vital signs every hour.
4. Question the use of potassium in the IV fluids.

4. Question the use of potassium in the IV fluids.

200

(3) Which discharge instructions would the nurse give to address the risk for nephrotoxicity

for a client who has been given a prescription for an aminoglycoside antibiotic? (Select

all that apply)

a) Increased fluid intake to 2000-2500 mL fluid daily

b) Report sudden weight gain or puffy eyes

c) Don’t be concerned with edema as a normal side effect

d) Eat a low-protein diet while taking this antibiotic

e) Elevated blood pressure is an expected drug effect

a) Increased fluid intake to 2000-2500 mL fluid daily

b) Report sudden weight gain or puffy eyes

200

Which treatments are typically included in the management of nephrotic syndrome? select all that apply 

A. Corticosteroids 

B. Diuretics

C. Antibiotics 

D. ACE inhibitors

A. Corticosteroids 

B. Diuretics

D. ACE inhibitors

200

Which clinical manifestations are commonly associated with Graves' disease?

A. Bradycardia and weight gain 

B. Proptosis and heat intolerance 

C. Cold intolerance and proptosis

D. Fatigue and hypotension 


B. Proptosis and heat intolerance

300

A patient diagnosed with H. Pylori infection is prescribed a combination therapy. Which statements about the treatment are correct? (Select all that apply)

A. The treatment regimen typically includes antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor.

B. Treatment duration is generally one week.

C. Bismuth subsalicylate may be added to the regimen to help eradicate the bacteria.

D. It is crucial to complete the entire course of antibiotics to prevent resistance.

E. Once treated, H. Pylori infection is unlikely to recur.

A. The treatment regimen typically includes antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor.

C. Bismuth subsalicylate may be added to the regimen to help eradicate the bacteria.

D. It is crucial to complete the entire course of antibiotics to prevent resistance.

300

A patient with suspected peritonitis presents with abdominal pain, fever, and tachycardia. What are the priority nursing interventions? (Select all that apply)

A. Administer antibiotics as ordered.

B. Prepare the patient for possible surgery.

C. Encourage oral fluid intake to maintain hydration.

D. Monitor vital signs and observe for signs of septic shock.

E. Apply heat to the abdomen to relieve pain.

A. Administer antibiotics as ordered.

B. Prepare the patient for possible surgery.

D. Monitor vital signs and observe for signs of septic shock.

300

As the nurse you know that there is a risk of a transfusion reaction during the administration of red blood cells. Which patient below it is at most RISK for a febrile (non-hemolytic) transfusion reaction?

A. A 38 year old male who has received multiple blood transfusions in the past year.

B. A 42 year old female who is IgA deficient.

C. A 78 year old male who is B+ that just received AB+ blood during a transfusion.

D. A 25 year old female who is AB+ and just received B+ blood.

A. A 38 year old male who has received multiple blood transfusions in the past year.

300

What are the hallmark signs of diabetes mellitus type 1?

A. Polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss 

B. Polyphagia, fatigue, and weight gain 

C. Polyuria, polyphagia, and blurred vision 

D. Weight gain, fatigue, and polydipsia 

A. Polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss - These are classic symptoms of type 1 diabetes.

300

Which diagnostic test is most specific for confirming Graves' disease?

A. Serum TSH levels 

B. Thyroid ultrasound 

C. Radioactive iodine uptake test 

D. Serum calcium levels 

C. Radioactive iodine uptake test

400

A patient with hemorrhoids is seeking advice on symptom relief. What recommendations should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply)

A. Increase dietary fiber intake.

B. Take sitz baths several times a day.

C. Apply topical corticosteroids as prescribed.

D. Avoid prolonged sitting or standing.

E. Use ice packs to reduce swelling.

A. Increase dietary fiber intake.

B. Take sitz baths several times a day.

C. Apply topical corticosteroids as prescribed.

D. Avoid prolonged sitting or standing.

E. Use ice packs to reduce swelling.

400

 A patient needs 2 units of packed red blood cells. The patient is typed and crossmatched. The patient has B+ blood. As the nurse you know the patient can receive what type of blood? Select all that apply:

A. B-

B. A+

C. O-

D. B+ 

E. O+

F. A-

G. AB+

H. AB-

A. B-

C. O-

D. B+ 

E. O+

400

A patient with anuria is being evaluated for kidney function. What statements about the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) are correct? (Select all that apply)

A. A GFR less than 15 mL/min indicates severe kidney dysfunction.

B. Anuria is defined as urine output less than 50 mL per day.

C. GFR is a reliable indicator of overall kidney function.

D. A high GFR is indicative of kidney failure.

E. GFR can be estimated using serum creatinine levels.

A. A GFR less than 15 mL/min indicates severe kidney dysfunction.

B. Anuria is defined as urine output less than 50 mL per day.

C. GFR is a reliable indicator of overall kidney function.

E. GFR can be estimated using serum creatinine levels.

400

Which of the following laboratory findings would a nurse expect in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? Select all that apply 

A. Hypoglycemia 

B. Metabolic acidosis 

C. Elevated ketone levels

D. Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 

B. Metabolic acidosis 

C. Elevated ketone levels

400

What is a distinguishing feature of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) compared to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?


A. Presence of ketones in urine 

B. Severe dehydration 

C. Low blood glucose levels 

D. Rapid onset of symptoms 

B. Severe dehydration

500

A TRALI is a serious complication that can occur with blood transfusions. What are the characteristics of TRALI?

A. TRALI occurs within 1 to 2 hours of the transfusion, activates the complement cascade, and decreases histamine release.
B. TRALI occurs anytime during the transfusion to 6 hours after transfusion, activates the complement cascade, and increases histamine release.
C. TRALI occurs within 8 hours of the transfusion, activates the complement cascade, and increases histamine release.
D. TRALI occurs within 8 hours of the transfusion, activates the complement cascade, and decreases histamine release.

B. TRALI occurs anytime during the transfusion to 6 hours after transfusion, activates the complement cascade, and increases histamine release.

500

A patient with a peptic ulcer is being discharged with medication and lifestyle recommendations. What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? (Select all that apply)

A. Take medications exactly as prescribed, even if symptoms improve.

B. Avoid taking NSAIDs unless approved by your healthcare provider.

C. Limit alcohol consumption to two drinks per day.

D. Eat small, frequent meals rather than large meals.

E. Smoking cessation is strongly advised.

A. Take medications exactly as prescribed, even if symptoms improve.

B. Avoid taking NSAIDs unless approved by your healthcare provider.

D. Eat small, frequent meals rather than large meals.

E. Smoking cessation is strongly advised.

500

A patient with acute pyelonephritis presents with which typical symptoms? (Select all that apply)

A. Flank pain

B. Fever and chills

C. Generalized non-pruritic rash

D. Generalized edema

E. Urgency and frequency of urination

A. Flank pain

B. Fever and chills

E. Urgency and frequency of urination

500

A nurse is preparing to give bethanechol (Urecholine). What is the expected outcome of this drug?


A. Nondistended bladder
B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
C. Improved pulse oximetry reading
D. Relief of cardiac rhythm problems

A. Nondistended bladder

500

Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of osteoarthritis? select all that apply

A. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes 

B. Symmetric joint involvement 

C. Crepitus with joint movement 

D. Boutonniere deformities

C. Crepitus with joint movement