Access
Best initial permanent hemodialysis access for a left-handed male with normal exam and vein mapping
What is right radiocephalic autogenous fistula?
The lateral incision for four-compartment lower extremity fasciotomy decompresses these two compartments
What is anterior and lateral compartments?
Atherosclerosis is a result of disease in this layer of blood vessels, whereas hypertension is the result of this layer
What is intima and media?
These three factors increase the risk of DVT and are called Virchow's triad
What are stasis, hypercoagulability, and venous wall injury?
A 28 year-old violinist presents with headaches, neck pain, and clumsiness/numbness of the right hand. This disease is likely the cause of her symptoms
What is thoracic outlet syndrome
Optimal management for a 1.6 cm pseudoanneurysm from attempted right femoral vein catheter
What is observation and repeat ultrasound in 4 weeks?
This compartment of the thigh rarely develops compartment syndrome
What is medial compartment?
This the most reasonable treatment option in a patient with thigh claudication, ABI of 0.8, and focal stenosis of the right common illiac artery
What is angioplasty and stent?
A patient with a tender, erythematous, cordlike structure present in the lower lateral left breast toward the costal margin is presenting with what type of venous disease?
What is Mondor's disease or thrombophlebitis of the breast?
This drug has been demonstrated to improve the graft patency of an infrainguinal prosthetic bypass in multiple RCTs
What is aspirin?
After physical examination with tourniquet in place, the next best test to optimize the placement of a permanent AV access
What is venous ultrasound mapping?
In a neurologically intact individual, this is is the first sign that heralds the development of compartment syndrome in the lower extremity
What is pain?
This is the most probable cause of graft failure in the intermediate period (30 days to 2 years)
Intimal hyperplasia
A 56-year-old man presents with prominent varicosities and a venous leg ulcer above the medial malleolus. A right limb duplex ultrasound would likely demonstrate incompetent venous disease at what level?
What is great saphenous vein?
This pathogen is the most likely culprit in a patient with a history of aortobifemoral bypass now presenting with a graft infection
What is S. epidermis?
The risk of this is lower with a subclavian vein tunneled catheter with subcutaneous reservoir for chemotherapy access versus a triple-lumen catheter in the same position
Catheter-related bloodstream infection
The number of compartments in the hand
What is 10?
The most common site of infrainguinal arterial occlusive disease in heavy smokers
SFA disease
This is the optimal therapy of telangiectasias
What is injection sclerotherapy?
What is the most common site for a peripheral arterial anneurysm?
What is popliteal anneurysm?
67 yo F two months s/p brachial-cephalic fistula complains of hand pain that is worse with dialysis. On exam, she has a weak radial pulse and cool hand. Angiography shows a patent fistula. The best management strategy is:
What is a Distal Revascularization and Interval Ligation (DRIL) procedure?
This type of contracture is the residual limb deformity that results over weeks to months following untreated acute compartment syndrome or ischemia from an uncorrected arterial injury.
What is Volkman's contracture?
A 65-year-old woman presents with 2 hours of acute pain and numbness in her right leg. Examination of the right leg reveals palpable femoral pulses that are particularly prominent, but distal pulses are absent. Arterial Doppler signals are barely audible at the dorsalis pedis. She also has mild sensory loss and early motor changes. EKG reveals atrial fibrillation. The optimal management strategy of this patient is
What is surgical thrombectomy?
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) complicates standard anticoagulation in up to 20% of cases. It classically occurs between 3-14 days after initial heparin exposure, though a more accelerated response can occur in individuals with prior heparin exposure. The presence of a heparin-antibody complex binds platelets resulting in their activation as well as thrombocytopenia. This assay confirms this diagnosis that should be suspected with a 50% drop in platelet count
What is seratonin release assay
A 30 year-old male has history of a malignant thymoma that is unresectable and has been treated with multiple rounds of radiation. He now presents with facial swelling, engorged neck veins, and dizziness. This is the optimal therapy