Foundations and Professional Practice
Which of the following is an accurate statement about what IDEA requires for an IEP?
A. The IEP must include a multiyear outline of instructional objectives.
B. The IEP must include a section on assistive devices, regardless of the nature or degree of the student's disability.
C. The IEP must be in effect before special education services or related services are provided.
D. The IEP must not be made available to any school personnel except special education teachers.
C. The IEP must be in effect before special education services or related services are provided.
This must be done prior to giving services according to IDEA. None of the other answers are required.
The Spanish-speaking parents of a 9 year old bilingual child report that their child communicates in Spanish with complete utterances and has a good vocabulary in comparison to other children in the neighborhood. their concern is that the child interrupts their conversations and has not learned social rules that are important within the family and community. Testing confirms similar problems in English-speaking settings. The SLP would most likely recommend that therapy focus on which of the following language areas?
A. Syntax
B. Morphology
C. Semantics
D. Pragmatics
D. Pragmatics
Parents described adequate syntactic and semantic knowledge by the child.
A 60 year old man has Parkinson's disease and is in the early stage of dementia. It would be appropriate to address which of the following goals first in therapy?
A. To educate the family or caregivers
B. To decrease jargon
C. To decrease circumlocution
D. To improve motor skills
A. To educate the family or caregivers
When dementia is associated with Parkinson's it is usually irreversible. Therefore family/caregivers must understand the nature of the linguistic and intellectual problems and learn how to maximize the abilities of the client.
Which of the following is the major physical or organic factor underlying impairment in the speech of persons with cleft palate?
A. Congenital hearing loss from otitis media
B. Broad irregular maxillary arch
C. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency
D. Irregular vocal fold abduction
C. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency
This is the correct answer or more specifically velopharyngeal insufficiency.
A 68 year old man sustained a CVA and received a course of speech-language treatment for anomic aphasia. He was discharged after making rapid improvement early in therapy. Three years later his wife reports that he is having more difficulty speaking and understanding, but that his memory skills and orientation abilities remain intact. She has also noticed that his conversation skills are slowly deteriorating. Of the following, which is the most likely explanation for the client's communicative decline?
A. A transient ischemic attack
B. An astrocytoma, probably in the vicinity of the supramarginal gyrus
C. Primary progressive aphasia
D. Lewy body dementia
C. Primary progressive aphasia
This is isolated language deterioration with relative preservation of other cognitive abilities and symptoms that vary, depending upon the site of lesion.
Under the requirement for a child to receive a free and appropriate public education in the least restrictive environment, a public school must provide sign language interpreter services to a child under which of the following conditions?
A. The school district can recover the cost of interpreter services from a third-party payer.
B. The child's physician indicates that the services of an interpreter are medically necessary.
C. The interpreter has been requested by the parent in the IEP meeting.
D. The IEP team determines that interpreter services are necessary for the child.
D. The team determines that interpreter services are necessary for the child.
IDEA makes it clear that the services to be provided to a student must be endorsed as educationally necessary by the entire IEP team, which includes the student's parents, a regular education teacher, a special education teacher, a representative of local education agency, and others as appropriate.
Which of the following correctly indicates the point at which an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) evaluation should begin?
A. With the trial use of an AAC device
B. After the client has developed the prerequisite cognitive skills
C. With an analysis of the client's communication needs
D. With a medical consultation
C. With an analysis of the client's communication needs
The assessment should analyze the client's communication needs.
Ms. March, age 70, receives speech-language treatment at her assisted living facility for aphasia secondary to a stroke (CVA). Medicare is reimbursing a home health agency that visits the facility for Ms. March's treatment following submission of an evaluation and treatment plan from the SLP employed by the home health agency. To ensure that reimbursement for treatment continues, the SLP must...
A. administer a standardized aphasia battery weekly to assess progress
B. include recommendations for family participation in the treatment plan
C. secure the physician's endorsement of treatment continuation on a schedule dictated by Medicare
D. initiate treatment within six months of Ms. March's hospitalization for the stroke
C. secure the physician's endorsement of treatment continuation on a schedule dictated by Medicare
Medicare will only authorize continued treatment with physician approval.
Which of the following is true about supporting a young child's acquisition of English as a second language?
A. A focus in the family on the English-speaking culture as well as the language will support the child's acquisition of English.
B. To support language development, family members should speak to the child in the language they are most comfortable using.
C. If a child has a language disorder, a delay in learning English will best help the child achieve the highest ultimate level of fluency.
D. Even without support, the child can be expected to be fully fluent in English in less than two years.
B. To support language development, family members should speak to the child in the language they are most comfortable using.
This will allow the family to more easily support the child through the acquisition process.
An SLP determines the mean length of utterance (MLU) of a language sample from a 3 year old child. Two weeks later, the SLP reevaluates the same sample and again determines the MLU. The extent to which the two scores are similar is most directly a function of the...
A. validity of the scores
B. reliability of the scores
C. skewness of the score distribution
D. speededness of the measure
B. reliability of the scores
Reliability is consistency with which a test measures or the degree to which repeated measurement with the same instrument of the same individual would tend to produce the same results.
Larger values indicate greater reliability.
Which of the following statements best characterizes the ethics of formulating prognosis for clients with speech and language disorders?
A. No assessment is complete until a precise statement can be formulated regarding the prognosis.
B. The extreme complexity of speech and language processes and behaviors makes it impossible to formulate prognoses.
C. After an assessment has been completed, it is usually appropriate to make some general statements about prognosis.
D. A clinician's ability to make prognostic statements depends on the availability of standardized tests to quantify the severity of a speech and language disorder.
C. After an assessment has been completed, it is usually appropriate to make some general statements about prognosis.
According to ASHA, an SLP can make general statements about a client's prognosis.
A 54-year-old pastor, Rev. Johnson, has a stroke and takes a leave of absence from his job while he recovers. After a 3-4-month period, he goes back to work, which include preaching sermons on Sunday mornings and visiting church members who are sick. He says that he is "100% back"; however, his parishioners and family notice that he tends to bump into people who walk on his left; when he writes, he does not use the left side of the page. He does not recognize parishioners who he has known for 30 or more years until they begin to speak. When people tell jokes, he does not laugh or appear to understand the jokes as he used to. He does not detect sarcasm in other people's speech. Rev. Johnson probably has...
A. Dementia
B. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
C. Right-hemisphere syndrome
D. Apraxia of speech
C. Right-hemisphere syndrome
This is characterized by left-side neglect, difficulty recognizing people until they begin to speak, and difficulty detecting sarcasm and humor in other people's speech.
An SLP can use a direct intervention approach or an indirect intervention approach in providing fluency treatment for a preschool child who stutters. Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the current evidence regarding the effectiveness of these two approaches to fluency treatment for children younger than 5?
A. Evidence clearly indicates more favorable outcomes using direct intervention.
B. Evidence clearly indicates more favorable outcomes using indirect intervention.
C. Evidence clearly supports using a combination of direct and indirect interventions with the same child.
D. There is not sufficient evidence to support the use of a direct intervention approach over an indirect intervention approach.
D. There is not sufficient evidence to support the use of a direct intervention approach over an indirect intervention approach.
A study completed by ASHA in 2010 showed that there is not sufficient evidence to support one form of intervention over the other.
Which of the following is characteristic of apraxia of speech but NOT dysarthria?
A. Consistent errors regardless of length and complexity of utterance
B. Difficulty performing both non-speech and speech motor tasks
C. Predictable errors
D. Normal strength, tone, and range of movement of oral and pharyngeal muscles
D. Normal strength, tone, and range of movement of oral and pharyngeal muscles
Patient's with dysarthria have abnormal strength, tone, and range of movement of oral and pharyngeal muscles.
Sometimes specialists assess the lung volume of voice patients because breath support is inadequate. Specialists can measure _________, or the total volume of air in the lungs, other measurements can include ________, or the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breathing cycle; and __________, or the volume of air that the patient can exhale after a maximal exhalation.
A. total lung capacity, tidal volume, vital capacity
B. vital capacity, tidal capacity, total lung volume
C. vital capacity, total lung capacity, tidal volume
D. tidal volume, total lung capacity, vital volume
E. vital capacity, total lung volume, tidal volume
A. total lung capacity, tidal volume, vital capacity
You are observing a treatment session in which a clinician is treating a 65-year-old man who has aphasia. In the previous session, the client had been reinforced for correctly naming several pictures. In the current session, the clinician shows 10 untrained stimuli and asks, "What is this?" for each picture/stimulus item. However, the clinician does not reinforce correct responses. In the latter procedure, the clinician is,
A. fading the reinforcers but differently applying indirect reinforcement.
B. measuring generalized production with a probe.
C. fading the reinforcers.
D. assessing whether the client has learned to name the treatment stimuli.
B. measuring generalized production with a probe.
You are evaluating a girl who has been referred because of difficulties associated with partial submucous cleft palate accompanied by a bifid uvula. During your evaluation, you can probably expect to find:
A. intermittent hyponasality, leading to difficulty producing nasals adequately.
B. hypernasality, leading to difficulty producing nasals adequately.
C. hypernasality, accompanied by decreased intraoral breath pressure, leading to difficulties with adequate productions of fricatives, affricates, and plosives.
D. hyponasality, accompanied by increased intraoral breath pressure, leading to difficulties with adequate production of liquids and glides.
E. hypernasality, accompanied by difficulty producing vowels and nasals adequately.
C. hypernasality, accompanied by decreased intraoral breath pressure, leading to difficulties with adequate productions of fricatives, affricates, and plosives.
Vivienne is a 77-year-old telephone receptionist at a busy state government office. She reports talking on the phone for at least 30 minutes out of each hour and talking in person to local citizens for 15 minutes out of the hour. Her chief voice complaints are harsh voice quality and poor voice durability. She saw an otolaryngologist (ENT), who diagnosed presbyphonia. She presents with no systematic diseases, and she is very willing to comply with your recommendations for increased vocal quality and amplitude. Suggested intervention techniques would include:
A. A rigorous vocal hygiene program only
B. A personal amplification system to use with patrons and co-workers at the office
C. Exploring techniques to improve respiratory and vocal efficiency
D. both B & C
D. both B & C
Amplification paired with behavioral strategies to improve respiratory-phonatory coordination is an ideal approach for Vivienne. Vocal hygiene is most effective when paired with counseling so that the client discovers optimum strategies for voice and speech production.
Stefanie is a client who is male-to-female transgender has been referred to you. She has begun hormone treatment and is seeking direction with respect to voice and pragmatic speech and language. As a novice clinician in the area of transgender intervention, it is important for you to know that...
A. Males typically show a slower rate of speech than females do
B. Males tend to generate greater inflection toward the ends of phrases
C. Females tend to use fewer adjective-adverb descriptors than males do
D. The transgender voice client is very concerned about his or her pitch
D. The transgender voice client is very concerned about his or her pitch
In most initial therapy sessions, attention is typically given to pitch, followed by speaking rate and volume. Therefore, it is important to ask your client about her perception of her pitch and whether she is comfortable with her speaking fundamental frequency and pitch range.
An intervention to improve receptive vocabulary involves a computer program that presents 3 pictures on the screen and requests that the child point to the picture that the computer indicates via digitized speech. The child's intervention goal is 80% correct responding. A response rate of 30% correct most likely indicates that the...
A. software has been moderately effective in helping the child reach his goal
B. child's visual discrimination surpasses his auditory discrimination
C. child's responses are essentially random
D. child is ready to progress to an on-screen array of four pictures
C. child's responses are essentially random
Because there are 3 pictures, a response rate close to 33% (1/3) is at the level of chance.
A clinician in a hospital setting is informed that insurance companies have begun to demand specific evidence that the clients with neurologically based disorders are taught functional communication skills. These skills are...
A. age- and norm- based skills that are appropriate for the client
B. useful only for adults
C. behaviors that promote communication in natural settings
D. useful only for clients with language disorders
C. behaviors that promote communication in natural settings
Looking for functional communication behaviors
Measures of jitter and shimmer are becoming more common in use with voice patients because they can be useful in early detection of vocal pathology. Although you suspect that the otolaryngologist will find obvious vocal pathology given Juanita's history of prolonged hoarseness, you still want to obtain measures of jitter and shimmer because these can serve as an excellent baseline -- especially if Juanita has phonosurgery. When you take these measures, you might expect to see:
A. a small amount of shimmer and a large amount of jitter
B. a large amount of jitter with only a small-moderate amount of shimmer
C. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1dB of variation across vibratory cycles when jitter is measured
D. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1dB of variation across vibratory cycles when shimmer is measured
D. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1dB of variation across vibratory cycles when shimmer is measured
Measurements of jitter, or frequency perturbation, indicate that in a normal speaker with no vocal pathology, jitter should be less than 1% as the speaker sustains a vowel. Measurements of shimmer, or amplitude perturbation, evaluate the cycle-to-cycle variation of vocal intensity. Some experts believe that more than 1dB of variation across cycles causes a patient to sound dysphonic.
A child is referred to you by his preschool teacher. This child, Damien, is 4 years 3 months old and has transferred from out of state. In his previous state, Damien was reportedly assessed by a speech-language pathologist who recommended that Damien receive intervention before kindergarten. According to. the report from the previous clinician, Damien uses the phonological processes of gliding, consonant, cluster reduction, stopping, reduplication, and final-consonant deletion. Your assessment confirms the presence of these phonological processes. You would begin treatment by addressing:
A. final-consonant deletion
B. gliding
C. consonant-cluster reduction
D. reduplication
E. stopping
D. reduplication
Reduplication is the earliest of the listed phonological processes to be phased out. In typically developing children, reduplication is usually phased out by approximately 2 years and 4 months.
A clinician is asked to give a workshop to graduate students about evaluation of patients with swallowing disorders. She discusses evaluation in depth. Which one of the following facts in the clinician's workshop would be inaccurate?
A. An ultrasound examination can measure oral tongue movement and hyoid movement.
B. A manometric assessment can assess the preparatory phase of the swallow using posterior and lateral plane examinations.
C. An electromyographic assessment can be conducted by attaching electrodes on structures of interest (e.g., oral, laryngeal, or pharyngeal muscles).
D. A laryngeal examination can be conducted with indirect laryngoscopy or endoscopic examination to inspect the base of the tongue, vallecula, epiglottis, pyriform sinuses, vocal folds, and ventricular folds.
B. A manometric assessment can assess the preparatory phase of the swallow using posterior and lateral plane examinations.
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the word-initial consonant?
A. The high-amplitude concentration of aperiodic energy at 4 kHz suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless sibilant fricative.
B. The low-amplitude concentration of periodic energy suggests that the initial consonant is a voiced sibilant fricative.
C. The presence of prevoicing before the release burst suggests that the initial consonant is a voiced affricate.
D. The low-amplitude, diffuse distribution of aperiodic energy suggest that the initial consonant is a voiceless nonsibilant fricative.
A. The high-amplitude concentration of aperiodic energy at 4 kHz suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless sibilant fricative.
Voiceless sibilant fricatives such as /s/ would be recorded on a spectrogram as having high-amplitude aperiodic energy in the range of 4kHz.