STAGE I
Flight Instruments
Attitude Instrument Flying
Instrument Navigation
Flight Instruments
Attitude Instrument Flying
Instrument Navigation
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?
a. 135° through 225°
b. 90° and 270°
c. 180° and 0°
What is "90° and 270°"?
Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position markings?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
What is "150"?
ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
a. 22 NM of a VOR.
b. 25 NM of a VOR.
c. 30 NM of a VOR.
What is "22 NM of a VOR"?
The instrument approach criteria for a Category A airplane is based on a maximum airspeed of
a. 100 knots.
b. 90 knots.
c. 80 knots.
What is "90 knots"?
The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is
a. 20.000 feet.
b. 25,000 feet.
c. 37,000 feet.
What is "37,000 feet"?
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni-bearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read
a. Within 4° of the selected radial
b. Within 6° of the selected radial
c. 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR
What is "within 6° of the selected radial"?
Destination signs indicate
a. The taxiway a pilot is on.
b. The runway a pilot is on.
c. The direction to takeoff runways.
What is "the direction to takeoff runways"?
Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
a. The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory.
b. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure.
c. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure.
What is "to use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure"?
To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?
a. 230 knots.
b. 200 knots.
c. 210 knots.
What is "200 knots"?
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
a. Cumulus.
b. Dissipating.
c. Mature.
What is "dissipating"?
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 4 minutes
What is "4 minutes"?
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
a. White and the far bar as red.
b. Red and the far bar as white.
c. White and the far bar as white.
What is "white and the far bar as red"?
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
a. Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.
b. Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.
c. Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
What is "takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published"?
During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?
a. When radar vectors are provided.
b. When cleared for the approach.
c. None, since it is always mandatory.
What is "when radar vectors are provided"?
Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice?
a. On the leading edge of the wing.
b. On the propeller.
c. On the air temperature probe.
What is "on the air temperature probe"?
Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg?
a. Density
b. Pressure
c. Standard
What is "Pressure"?
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...”?
a. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
b. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
c. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
What is "it authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000"?
Which of the following is true concerning GPS approaches?
a. Handheld GPS receivers are approved in emergency situations.
b. Terminal mode occurs within 20 NM of the destination airport.
c. In approach mode, the sensitivity on the CDI changes from 1 NM to 0.3 NM.
What is "in approach mode, the sensitivity on the CDI changes from 1 NM to 0.3 NM."?
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
a. Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
b. The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.
c. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
What are "the landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected"?
The strength and location of the jet stream is normally
a. stronger and farther north in the winter
b. weaker and farther north in the summer
c. stronger and farther north in the summer
What is "weaker and farther north in the summer"?
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
a. Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation
b. Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control
c. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control
What is "cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control"?
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
a. the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
b. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
c. the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
What is "the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more"?
What is the definition of MEA?
a. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.
c. An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal coverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.
What is "the lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage"?
If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
a. Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
b. Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.
c. Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.
What is "proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver"?
Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
a. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
b. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
c. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.
What is "cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility"?