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A 37 year old female patient returns to see you for follow-up of depression. You last saw her 4 weeks ago, and at that time she was experiencing her third relapse of recurrent major depression. She had been in remission for 3 years before, and until 2 years ago, she had been taking sertraline 150 mg daily, a regimen that she had found effective during an 18-month course of treatment. At her visit last month, you assessed her symptoms with the PHQ-9, and her score at that time was a 21. You re-instituted sertraline at 50 mg daily for 2 weeks and then increased to 100 mg daily. At her visit today, having been on sertraline 100mg daily for 2 weeks, her PHQ-9 score is 17. She denies having thoughts about death or suicide. Which of the following options is LEAST appropriate to recommend to your patient at this time?
a) Continue sertraline 100mg daily and return for follow-up in 1 month.
b) Continue sertraline 100mg daily, add weekly CBT and return for follow-up in 1 month.
c) Increase sertraline to 150 mg daily and return for follow-up in 1 month.
d) Stop the sertraline and start citalopram 20mg daily and return for follow-up in 1 month.
e) Continue sertraline 100mg daily and add buproprion SR 150mg BID, return for follow-up in 1 month.
What is D: Stop the sertraline and start citalopram 20mg daily and return for follow-up in 1 month.