Liver Let Die
Gut Feelings
Shaken, not Stirred
Blood Flow
Gran-tastic
Radicals
Heme Flow
double double vision
100

This diagnosis is made by finding a neutrophil count greater than 250 cells/µL in ascitic fluid.

What is Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)?

100

What is the recommended first-line therapy for uncomplicated diverticulitis?

Observation and pain control.

100

What is the first-line medication class for alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

Benzodiazepines

100

A patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation is scheduled for a low-bleeding-risk procedure. How many days before the procedure should warfarin be stopped?

5 days

100

What is the classic chest x-ray finding in a patient with sarcoidosis?

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

100

This is the cardinal rule of radiation side effects: (Radiation causes toxicity in this area)

the area that was treated

100

What is the maximum serum M-protein concentration for a diagnosis of MGUS?

Less than 3 g/dL

100

Identify the first critical distinction when evaluating a patient with diplopia.

Binocular diplopia resolves when either eye is covered and indicates ocular misalignment from neurologic, neuromuscular, or mechanical causes

Monocular diplopia persists when the unaffected eye is covered and typically indicates an ocular problem (such as refractive error, cataracts, or corneal irregularities)

200

This first-line therapy for pruritus in cirrhosis is a bile acid sequestrant.

What is cholestyramine?

200

What is the recommended diagnostic test for acute diverticulitis?

A contrast-enhanced abdominal and pelvic computed tomography (CT) scan.

200

what is the typical timeframe for the peak of delirium tremens symptoms?

48-72 hours

200

A patient taking apixaban for atrial fibrillation is scheduled for a low-bleeding-risk surgery. How long should the medication be held before the procedure?

24-48 hours

200

What is the pathognomonic finding on a tissue biopsy for sarcoidosis?

Non-caseating granulomas.

200

his common acute side effect of radiation to the breast or skin can be managed with various creams, ointments, or even honey dressings.

radiation dermatitis

200

According to Dr. Jacocks, these are the 3 important questions to ask/answer when it comes to an abnormal CBC. 

1. Trend - is that a pattern to the change over time?

2. Tempo - rapidly changing counts matter more than absolute numbers

3. Smear - does it suggest an acute problem

200

Which patients with acute binocular diplopia require urgent neuroimaging?

CNIII palsy requires urgent brain CTA to rule out compressive aneurysmal lesions

brainstem symptoms (vertigo, ataxia, dysarthria) should have urgent brain MRI

multiple CN palsies require imaging with attention on cavernous sinus (CT venogram)

diplopia + HA or diplopia + pupillary involvement require same-day urgent imaging 

300

What is the recommended screening for Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC) in a patient with cirrhosis?

Biannual abdominal ultrasound and serum α-fetoprotein.

300

Name two of the appropriate oral antibiotic regimens for a patient with uncomplicated diverticulitis who requires them.

Amoxicillin-clavulanate; Cefalexin + metronidazole; Ciprofloxacin + metronidazole; OR Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole + metronidazole.

300

This treatment for AUD focuses on identifying and unlearning patterns, thoughts, and feelings associated with substance use.

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

300

A patient on warfarin presents to the ED with a life-threatening hemorrhage. What two agents should be administered for rapid reversal?  

Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC) and Vitamin K

300

This enzyme is often elevated in sarcoidosis and can be used to monitor disease activity, although it has low specificity.

 What is Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE)?

300

Radiation pneumonitis generally occurs in this period following lung radiation.

dry cough and dyspnea 3-6 months after lung radiation

300

list 2 characteristics/factors associated with a blood clot that would lead to a high value heme consult.

•Unusual clot location (splanchnic, cerebral) = high value

•Recurrent thrombosis on anticoagulation = consult now

•Anticoagulation decisions that affect procedures or discharge disposition

•Hypercoagulable testing rarely changes inpatient management

300

This should be suspected when eye misalignment does not fit a pattern for any cranial nerve palsy.

Ocular myasthenia

(diplopia in myasthenia is typically variable, worsening with sustained gaze or fatigue, and may be accompanied by ptosis that worsens throughout the day)

400

In a patient with cirrhosis and portal hypertension, what is the preferred non-selective beta-blocker, and at what optimal daily dose?

Carvedilol, 12.5 mg daily.

400

This term describes diverticular inflammation associated with an abscess, phlegmon, fistula, perforation, or stricture.

What is complicated diverticulitis?

400

This FDA-approved medication for AUD is safe in Child-Pugh Class A/B cirrhosis but should not be used in patients on opioids.

naltrexone

400

Although proton treatments are more difficult to plan and often less accurate, what is the primary benefit of proton treatment?

no exit dose

400

What is the first-line treatment for symptomatic or progressive pulmonary sarcoidosis?

Corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone).

400

A patient develops difficulty with memory and high-level functioning months to years after whole-brain radiation. Is this considered a normal or abnormal side effect?

Normal (an expected late effect)

400

What is the minimum percentage of clonal bone marrow plasma cells required for a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

10% or a biopsy-proven plasmacytoma

400

What additional testing should be performed in patients over 50 years old presenting with recent-onset diplopia?

Inflammatory markers should be obtained to rule out giant cell arteritis in any patient over 50 years with a recent (within 1 month) history of diplopia, new headache, temporal artery abnormalities, or jaw claudication

500

In a patient with cirrhosis and a greater than 1.0-cm mass on screening ultrasound, what are the two imaging features on a multiphasic contrast-enhanced CT or MRI that can diagnose hepatocellular carcinoma without a biopsy?

Arterial-phase hyperenhancement and portal venous phase washout.

500

For a patient with complicated diverticulitis and a diverticular abscess, what is the size threshold at which antibiotic therapy alone is associated with a higher treatment failure rate?

 > 4 cm

500

This medication for AUD should be avoided in patients with severe chronic kidney disease

acamprosate

500

For a patient taking clopidogrel, how many days should it be held before a high-bleeding-risk surgery?

5 days

500

This syndrome is an acute form of sarcoidosis characterized by fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, and arthralgia.

What is Löfgren's syndrome?

500

After receiving external beam radiation, a patient asks if they are radioactive and can be around their pregnant daughter. What is your advice?

You are not radioactive, and it is safe to be around anyone, including pregnant women and children.

500

What percentage of bone marrow plasma cells is characteristic of smoldering myeloma?

Between 10% and 60%

600

A patient with compensated cirrhosis and small esophageal varices (<5 mm) without red wale marks is found on endoscopy. He cannot tolerate BB therapy. What is the recommended management?

Repeat upper endoscopy in 2 years

600

According to ASAM guidelines, what is the preferred benzodiazepine dosing method for alcohol withdrawal in a setting with continuous monitoring?

Symptom-triggered treatment

600

Any one of the following findings, even in the absence of serum calcium > 11.5 mg/dL, renal dysfunction, anemia, and bone lesions would be enough for MM diagnosis.

SliM criteria

clonal bone marrow plasma cells ≥60%

serum free light chain ratio ≥100

 >1 focal lesion on MRI

600

This medication is a commonly used steroid-sparing agent for patients with chronic or refractory sarcoidosis.

What is Methotrexate?

600

A patient with a serum M-protein of 2 g/dL and 5% clonal bone marrow plasma cells would be diagnosed with which condition?

Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS)