i
knew
that
I
could
100

A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be termed as: 

Heterozygous

Homozygous

Linked

Undeterminable

Heterozygous

100

What process is described by opsonization? 

a. Lysis of cells

b. Binding to cells or antigens to promote phagocytosis

c. Ingestion of cells

d. Phagocytosis

Binding to cells or antigens to promote phagocytosis

100

What is the test procedure that combines patient’s serum or plasma with commercial A1 and B reagent red cells?

reverse type

100

System associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)

Auto Anti-P

100

A 58-year-old man has a hemoglobin level of 5.9 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group B, D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the start of the first transfusion, he experiences erythema, itching and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is likely occurring?

Uticarial

Delayed hemolytic

TRALI

TACO

Febrile

Acute hemolytic

 

Uticarial

200

Given the following ABO phenotyping data:

 

FORWARD Anti-A: 2+mf,  Anti-B: 0

A1 cells: 0, B cells: 3+

What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy?

A patient given O blood

200

Which of the following components in the complement cascade mediates the lysis of the target cells?

a. C1qrs

b. C4a, C3a, and C5a

c. C5 to C9

d. C3a and C3b


c. C5 to C9


200

Which tests are performed to identify the cause of suspected hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

ABO, Rh, DAT, or all of the above

All of the above

200

System associated with resistance to malaria

Duffy

200

What is the cause of posttransfusion purpura?

Platelet antibodies

300

Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks? 

FDA

JC

CAP

CLIA

FDA

300

What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic? 


Enter option 1 in plain text

Carbohydrates

Lipids

Enzymes

Proteins

Proteins

300

 When is the immediate-spin (IS) crossmatch an acceptable procedure for the recipient?

When they don't have a clinically significant antibody today or ever! 

300

Which condition is often associated with the presence of anti-I?

Mycoplasma pneumoniae 

300

Which of the following conditions can result from long-term red blood cell transfusions?

 Hemosiderosis

400

Red cells that phenotype as S–s– are also: 

M-negative

U-negative

N-negative

K-negative

U-negative

400

How long following transfusion must the recipient’s sample be stored?

a minimum of 7 days
400

In an antibody identification panel, two red cells were positive at the antihuman globulin phase. The Autocontrol was negative. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-C was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody?

Confirm at least two red cells on the panel are negative for C and antigen type patient for the C antigen as long as patient has not been transfused in past 120 days.

400

What is the immunoglobulin class of most Rh system antibodies?

IgG

400

What antibodies cause an anaphylactic transfusion reaction?

IgA, IgG, IgM, or IgE 

IgA

500

Describe the principle for the Kleihauer-Betke test and why do we do it?

Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid elution and remains in the cell to stain pink, whereas adult cells appear as ghost cells. 

We do the test to quantify how much fetal blood made it into mom's blood stream so we can calculate how much rhogam she needs to protect her from making Anti-D

500

What temperature is used for incubation in the indirect antihuman globulin test?

37 degrees C

500

The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage as small as _______ml.

10mL

500

Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?

Duffy 

500

A patient’s antibody history listed an anti-Cellano. This antigen was previously known as:

Kell