prevents the enlargement of existing clots and the formation of new ones. I am monitored by a PTT
What is Heparin
100
Increase in the force of myocardial contraction
What is positive inotropic effect
100
morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerine, aspirin
What 4 drugs are given in suspected MI
100
I decrease intravascular volume, thereby decreasing preload and afterload
What are diuretics
100
I am used in treatment of CHF., I have a (+) inotropic and (-) chronotropic effect on cardiac muscle. I allow more Ca+ to enter myocaridal cells during depolarization and increase CO and renal perusion
What is Digoxin or cardiac glycosides
200
I block adrenergic receptors resulting in (-) inotropic and chromotropic effects. I also suppress renin release, decreasing preload and afterload.
What is Beta Blockers
200
results in a decrease in heart rate
What is negative chronotropic effect
200
used in the short term management of heart failure, when the patient does not respond to treatment with dig, diuretics or vasodilators.
What is Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors
200
valsartan, candesartan and losartan
What is Angiotensin II receptor blockers or ARBs
200
has a vasodilating effect on arteries and veins, promotes natriureses and usd when other pharmacolgoical methods have had little effect on the treatment of life-threating CHF
What is Natrecor ( Nesiritide)
300
These drugs interfere with HMG-CoA reductase
What are Statins
300
65%
What is a normal ejection fraction
300
a normal level is considered 2-3.5
What is INR
300
Work by inhibiting sodium and water reabsorption by inhibiting aldosterone secretion
What is ACE Inhibitors
300
this Beta Adrenergic agonist is used in heart falure to increase CO by increasing crdiac contractility
What is Dobutamine
400
because my MOA takes place in the intestine, making cholesterol bound to resins to be eliminated in the stool , adverse effects that limit my use are bloating, constipation, gas
What are bile acid sequestrants
400
name three complications of CHF
What is pleural effusions, atrial fibrillation, thrombus formation, arrhyyhmias, renal failure, hepatic failure
400
reflex tachycardia is a comensatory response that is seen in the use of this class of drugs. To prevent this adverse effect, I am usually given with a beta blocker
What is Direct vasodilators
400
amlodipine, felodipine and nicardipine
What is calcium channel blockers
400
Due to hyperkalemia, I should not be taken with a potassium sparing diuretic. I can cause a persistant cough and rarely angioedema in the AA popultion
What are Ace Inhibitors
500
my class decreases VLDL, reduces triglyerides and increases HDL. Hot flashes is my biggest adverse effect
What is Niacin or Nicotinic acid
500
although I am nonselective, I am a primary agent used to treat CHF. I am part beta-blocker, alpha 1 blocker and calcium channel blocker.
What is Coreg
500
the use of nitrates for vasodilation results in decreased preload due to
What is venous pooling
500
I am used to prevent recurrent emboli in patients following MI, Stroke or PTCA/ very expensive and can only be given by intravenous route
What is IIB IIIA inhibitors
500
I am given as bolus over 1-2 seconds and have a 10 second half-life. used to treat paroxysmal supraventriclular tachycardia