Anatomy
Anatomy II
Physiology
Physiology II
EKG
EKG patho
Renal
Renal II
CPB applications
Lung and brain anatomy
More respiration
Acids, bases, and gases
More gases
Misc
100

What is the name of the normally fluid-filled sacs that cushion and lubricate the lungs within the thorax?

Pleura/ Pleural sacs

100

The highest lost of pressure and the loss of pulsatility occurs in which vessels?

Arterioles

100

What organ does most of cardiac output perfuse?

Kidneys

100

_________    ________: When impaired valvular coaptation creates retrograde flow

_________    ________: When impaired orifice area reduces ejection

Valvular regurgitation/ insufficiency

Valvular stenosis

100

Ventricular depolarization usually occurs during what part of the EKG sequence?

QRS complex
100

Chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles is referred to as:

Ventricular fibrillation

100

What are the two types of nephrons, and which is more common?

Cortical (85%) and juxtamedullary (15%)

100

What releases renin?

Juxtaglomerular cells (as a part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus)

100

Does blood viscosity increase, decrease, of stay the same with hypothermia?

Increase (think thick like syrup)

100

What blood vessels supply blood to the lungs, feeding them oxygen?

Bronchial arteries

100

What is the name of the normal "breath"?

Tidal volume

100

What is the fastest buffering system, and the slowest system?

Fastest: chemical buffer

Slowest: Renal mechanism

100

True or false: O2 and CO2 compete for the same binding site on hemoglobin

False-- different sites and not direct competitors

100

What position are patients normally laying for cardiac surgery?

Supine

200

What is the name of the irregular muscle columns across the ventricles of the heart

Trabeculae carneae

200

What are the (typically fat-filled) grooved between each atria and ventricle called?

Sulcus (singular), sulci (plural)

200

Which type of vessel does blood move the slowest through?

Capillaries, as they have the greatest surface area

200

Which type of infarction occurs when there is transmural ischemia after no perfusion to the myocardium?

STEMI

200

What ion event is responsible for rapid depolarization of the contractile cells?

Sodium channels opening and sodium rushing in

200

Normal electrical rhythm is referred to as __________ and is at a rate of ________.

Sinus rhythm

60-100 bpm

200

What are the specialized epithelial cells in the distal convoluted tubule that measures NaCl concentration, providing feedback to the renal system?

Macula Densa

200

What part of the RAAS drives thirst?

Angiotensin II

200

What is the order for classifying hypothermia?

Normothermia

Mild hypothermia

Moderate hypothermia

Deep hypothermia

Profound hypothermia

200

What is the purpose of the Circle of Willis?

Maintain even and bilateral circulation to each side of the brain
200

What is the name of the air that does not participate in gas exchange (ie. is in the airway)

Dead space

200

What is the Bohr effect?

Increased CO2 and therefore decreased pH cause hemoglodin to release oxygen more readily

200
Where is PCO2 normally "monitored" in the body?

Central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata

200

What are branches off of the LAD and Cx?

Diagonals arise off of the LAD

Obtuse marginals arise off of the Cx

300

From inner to outer, what are the three layers of the heart?

Endocardium (inner)

Myocardium (middle, muscular)

Epicardium (outer) 

300

What is the piece of anatomy that keeps the IVC and SVC communicating even in the case of a blockage?

Azygous vein/ azygous venous system

300

What is the formula for cardiac output, and what is a typical adult cardiac output?

CO = SV x HR

4-6 LPM at rest

300

What is normal left ventricular diastolic pressure?

~10 mmHg (more accurately, 6 to 12 mmHg)

300

Resting membrane potential of pacemaker cells is _______

Resting membrane potential of contractile cells is _______

-60 mV

-90 mV

300

What is shown on the EKG in response to ischemia/ infarction?

ST segment elevation

(also perhaps inverted T waves) 

300

What are the following parts of the nephron?

A: Proximal convoluted tubule

B: Descending loop of Henle

C: Ascending loop of Henle

D: Distal tubule

E: Collecting duct

300

What does the 60/40/20 rule of body fluid compartments suggest?

60% of body weight is total body water

   40% of body weight is intracellular fluid

   20% of body weight is extracellular flujid

300

What factor does a colloid such as albumin influence?

capillary oncotic pressure

AKA colloid osmotic pressure

300

Bronchi branch into ______ which eventually branch into ______ which is where gas exchange occurs.

Bronchioles, alveoli

300

What is the name of the volume that remains in the lungs after a forced exhale?

Residual volume

300

What acid-base disorder would be seen with obstructive lung disease?

Respiratory acidosis

300

What is the driving factor for ventilation?

PaCO2

300

What are two examples of connective tissue disorders?

Marfan syndrome

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)

Loeys-Dietz syndrome

400

From inner to outer, what are the three layers of the pericardium?

Visceral (inner, against the heart)

Parietal

Fibrous (anchoring to surrounding anatomy)

400

What are the three leaflets of the tricuspid valve?

Anterior, posterior, septal

400

What are three factors that influence cardiac contractility?

Factors that raise contractility:

     Sympathetic nervous system stimulation (exercise, stress, pain)

    Catecholamines (epi, norepi, dopamine)

     Increased calcium


Factors that reduce contractility:

     Myocardial ischemia

     Low calcium or oxygen

     pH status (Acidosis)

     Sepsis

     Drugs (e.g. volatile anesthetics)

400

Calculate the ejection fraction:

CO: 5 LPM

CI: 2.6 LPM

HR: 71 BPM

EDV: 120 mL

ESV: 50 mL

Coronary perfusion: 250 mL/min

EF = (SV / EDV) * 100


58%

400

What is the order by which an electrical current moves through the conduction pathway?

SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, left and right bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

400

Arrhythmias that have electrical signals repeatedly going in a loop are ___________

Arrhythmias that are spontaneous depolarizations without inciting event are _______________

re-entrant

automatic

400

What is the end goal of renin release?

Maintain glomerular filtration rate by keeping the blood pressure normal (and renal perfusion normal)

400

What does the blood parameter BUN measure, and what would AKI/ CKD do to the value

Blood urea nitrogen, the urea in the blood (should be filtered) so AKI/ CKD increases the blood value

400

What is a crystalloid solution that contains a buffer, and what is one that does not contain a buffer?

Does not: 0.9% Normal saline

Does: Plasma-lyte, Normosol, LR

400

What is the typical MAP range that cerebral autoregulation is maintained?

70 to 150 mmHg

400

What is V/Q, and what does it describe?

V= ventilation of the lungs

Q= perfusion of the lungs

400

What are three chemical buffers?

Bicarbonate (weak)

Phosphate

Proteins (strong)

400

What is the relationship between hemoglobin and nitric oxide, and what does this mean for vascular tone?

Hemoglobin scavenges NO, which means that there is eventual vasoconstriction and increased vascular tone

400

What is the term that describes "stretchability" of blood vessels, as well as the heart?

Compliance

500

Which valves (names) are anchored by chordae tendinae and papillary muscles?

Tricuspid and mitral (AV valves)

500

Inner to outer, what are the main three layers of blood vessels?

Tunica intima (inner)

tunica media

Tunica adventitia (outer)

500

Coronary drainage is through which three pathways

a. 80%:

b. 15%: 

c. 5%:

80% Coronary sinus

15% anterior cardiac veins

5% thebesian veins

500
Systemic hypertension increases _____________ which eventually can result in _________ congestive heart-failure.

Afterload, left-sided

500

What is the threshold potential of pacemaker cells, and what event occurs when this threshold potential is reached?

-40 mV, calcium gated channels open to allow for an influx of calcium and complete depolarization

500

An extra heartbeat occurring in the lower chambers are called _____ and three or more of these qualifies as: ______ 

Premature ventricular contraction

Ventricular tachycardia

500
Approximately how much filtrate is produced within the nephrons, and what percentage of it is reabsorbed?

180 L/day, 99%

500

How is glucose handled in the nephron?

Filtered freely

Almost completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule

500

What does the Q10 principle state?

The degree to which metabolism changes for every 10 degree (celsius) change in temperature 

500

What is the primary physiologic regulator of CBF/ autoregulation?

pcCO2

500

What is Dalton's Law?

The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas

500

What three ways is carbon dioxide transported, and which is the primary way?

bicarbonate ion in plasma (70%)

bound to hemoglobin (20%)

dissolved in plasma (10%)

500

What is the Haldane effect?

Deoxygenated hemoglobin carries more CO2 and H+ than oxygenated hemoglobin

500
The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP to maintain the concentration gradient in which way?

More sodium outside the cell

More potassium inside the cell

600

From proximal to distal, what are the three head vessels?

Brachiocephalic/ innominate artery

Left common carotid artery

Left subclavian artery

600

What two vessels come together to form the SVC, draining the head, neck, and arms?

Right and left brachiocephalic veins

600

Aerobic metabolism creates how many ATP per glucose molecule?

Anaerobic metabolism creates how many ATP per glucose molecule and creates which byproduct via glycolysis?

36

2; lactate

600

What is ischemic preconditioning? 

a protective process where brief, repeated episodes of temporary blood flow restriction make tissues more resistant to a later, severe lack of oxygen. It reduces cell damage, lowers the risk of tissue death,

600

What is the conduction pathway that carries depolarization from the right atrium to the left atrium?

Bachmann's Bundle

600

What are the following two arrhythmias?

Atrial flutter

Atrial fibrillation

600

What are the following players of the RAAS system?

A: Renin

B: Angiotensinogen

C: Angiotensin I

D: Angiotensin converting enzyme

E: Angiotensin II

F: Aldosterone

600

What are the three major stimuli for renin release?

Decreased renal perfusion pressure

Decreased NaCl in the macula densa 

SNS activation

600

The blood management system that analyzes gases at actual temperature is:


The blood management system that analyzes gases at 37 C is:

pH-stat

alpha-stat

600

What is the role of surfactant in the lungs?

Reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing them from collapsing during exhalation

600

Which of the following is most soluble in solution, and which is least soluble in solution?

Oxygen

Nitrogen

Carbom dioxide

Most soluble is CO2

Least soluble is nitrogen

600

What condition is described below?

pH 7.52

PCO2 40 mmHg

HCO3 34 mmhg
600

What does p50 mean, and what is the normal pressure value?

The partial pressure of oxygen at which hemoglobin is 50% saturated with oxygen-- usually 27 mmHg

600

What fatal condition may result as a result of calcium overload and ATP depletion?

Stone heart syndrome

700

What are the four types of tissue in the body, and how do they appear in the heart?

Epithelial (endothelium) 

Connective (valves and chordae)

Nervous (conduction pathway)

Muscle (myocardium

700

Please label A-C

A- aortic root

B- sinus of valsaalva

C- sinotubular junction

700

What is normal oxygen saturation of blood flowing through the pulmonary veins, and or the pulmonary arteries?

Pulmonary veins: 95-100%

Pulmonary arteries: 70-75%

700

Myocardial stunning is a type of _________     ________ when function is impaired to prior ischemic cardiac tissue

reperfusio injury

700

What is the intrinsic pacing speed of the SA node, the AV node, and the Purkinje fibers?

SA node: 60-100 bpm

AV node: 40-60 bpm

Purkinje fibers: 20-40 bpm

700

The most common type of supraventricular tachycardia is __________________ which means that there is a repeated electrical circuit at the AV node

AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

700

Where does filtration in the nephron occur?

What is the vessel leading blood to this, and taking blood away from?

Glomerulus (in the renal corpuscle)

Afferent arteriole (to)

Efferent arteriole (from)

700

What are the four Starling forces?

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

Capillary oncotic pressure

Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

Interstitial oncotic pressure 

700

What is the approximate "safe" circulatory arrest time at 18 C?

~45 minutes

700

What blood vessels supply the brain/ Circle of Willis?

Left and right internal carotid arteries

Right and left vertebral arteries

700

What is Henry's Law?

 A gas dissolves in solution proportionally to its partial pressure and its solubility

700

What is the equation that relates CO2 and HCO3? (three segments)


700

What is atmospheric pressure in mmHg, and what is the approximate composition?

760 mmHg

Nitrogen (597 mmHg)

Oxygen (159 mmHg)

Carbon dioxide (0.3 mmHg)

700

What are ANP and BNP, where and when are they released, and what effect do they have? 

Atrial natriuretic peptide and B-type (brain natriuretic peptide

Released by the atria (ANP) and ventricles (BNP) in response to stretch

Results in sodium excretion and diuresis by the kidneys, thereby less blood volume

800

Which veins mirror the LAD, PDA, and RCA?

LAD: Great cardiac vein

PDA: Middle cardiac vein

RCA: Small cardiac vein

800

Label A through K

A- RCA

B- LCA

C- Asc. aorta

D- Brachiocephalic/ innominate artery

E- Right subclavian artery

F- Right common carotid artery

G- Left common carotid artery

H- Left subclavian artery

I- Aortic arch

J- Descending aorta

K- Thoracic aorta

L- Abdominal aorta

800

Which two factors does the Frank-Starling Law relate?

Ventricular performance/ Cardiac output


Ventricular EDV (Preload)

800

What phase of the cardiac cycle begins when LV pressure becomes higher than aortic pressure?

Ejection

800

What channels maintain the negative membrane potential of contractile cells?

Kir, or inwardly rectifying potassium cells
800

When there is no relationship between the P waves and the QRS complexes, this is defined as:

Third degree, or complete, heart block

800

What are the capillaries that act as a countercurrent exchanger to preserve the medullary osmotic gradient, running parallel to the Loop of Henle? 

Vasa recta

800

What is the normal intracellular and extracellular concentrations of sodium and potassium?

Sodium: 145 mM (extra), 15 mM (intra)

Potassium: 4 mM (extra), 150 mM (intra)

800

What is one advantage to alpha stat, and one advantage to pH stat?

Alpha stat: preserves cerebral autoregulation

pH stat: more cerebral blood flow for more brain cooling

800

A: Middle cerebral artery

B: Anterior communicating artery

C: Anterior cerebral artery

D: Internal carotid artery

E: Posterior cerebral artery

F: Posterior communicating artery

800

What is a normal V/Q ratio, what does a high V/Q indicate, and what does a low V/Q indicate?

Normal = 0.8

High v/q means ventilation exceeded perfusion, so there is inadequate blood flow (pulmonary embolism)

Low v/q means perfusion exceeds ventilation (atelectasis, pneumonia)

800

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and what does it tell us?

Relates pH, bicarbonate, and PaCO2

800

What are factors that shift the oxy-hemoglobin curve to the left? What does a shift to the left mean?

Increased affinity

Lower CO2, temperature, 2,3 BPG

Higher pH

800

How does the sliding filament model work?

A nerve impulse releases calcium, which moves the blocking  proteins troponin 

Troponin pulls tropomyosin off of actin, making it available for binding

Myosin attaches to actin (cross bridge0 and does a "power stroke", shortening the muscle

New ATP resets myosin to do another power stroke