Sympathomimetics
Alpha and Beta blockers
Anti-arrythmics
Intra-operative emergencies
Anti-hypertensives
100
My patient is on a MAO inhibitor. This directly acting agent can be given peripherally and is the agent of choice to increase blood pressure in these patients.
What is phenylephrine
100
The three commonly used B1 selective b-blockers
What is metoprolol, atenolol and esmolol
100
The name of the most commonly used classification system for anti-arrythmics
What is the Vaughn Williams classification
100
The energy level that a Phillips biphasic defibrillator should be set to for a shockable rhythm (for external defibrillation)
What is 150J
100
a2 agonist with selectivity a2:a1 of 220:1
What is clonidine
200
This drug is an agonist at alpha and B1 receptors but has no B2 activity.
What is Noradrenaline
200
Esmolol is metabolised by these
What are RBC esterases
200
Drug of choice for treatment of SVT in a patient with wolf-parkinson-white syndrome
What is procainamide
200
Digoxin, Calcium, Levosimendan and glucagon all belong to this group of drugs
What are inotropes
200
Acts by blocking the L-type Ca++ channel and has the most negative inotropic action of this group of drugs
What is Verapamil
300
The receptor is found in all sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia
What is the nicotinic cholinergic receptor
300
B-blockers belong to this class of anti-arrythmics
What is Class II anti-arrythmic
300
The class of anti-arrythmic that is especially useful for ventricular arrythmias associated with digoxin toxicity
Class Ib Anti-arrythmics including lignocaine and phenytoin
300
Help!! The holding area misread Laurie Doolan's order for scopolamine and gave 10 times the prescribed dose. The patient has central anti-cholinergic syndrome. What drug is used to treat this condition?
What is physostigmine (anti-cholinesterase that crosses the BBB)
300
The starting dose and safe range for dosage of sodium nitroprusside
What is 0.5 mic/kg/min up to 2 mic/kg/min (up to 10 mic/kg/min for short duration)
400
The drugs (and their concentrations) that make up co-phenylcaine
What is lignocaine 5% and phenylephrine 0.5%
400
Used for intra-operative treatment of phaeochromocytoma and often referred to as 'anti-aramine'
What is phentolamine
400
Anti-arrythmic that structurally resembles thyroxine and has a t1/2 of 29 days
What is Amiodarone
400
Commonly used drug to treat intra-operative hypertension, may cause tachycardia and given in a dose of 5 - 10mg IV, repeated if necessary
What is Hydralazine
400
The structure of GTN (draw on the board)
What is: H2C - 0 - N02 | HC - 0 - N02 | H2C - 0 - N02
500
The end product of metabolism of adrenaline and noradrenaline (in unabbreviated form!!)
What is vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA) or 3 methoxy 4 hydroxy mandelic acid
500
An Alpha 2 blocker used for treatment of impotence and postural hypotension
What is Yohimbine
500
The subtype of adenosine receptor responsible for vasodilation and flushing when adenosine is given
What is the A2 alpha receptor
500
A reasonable bolus dose of intravenous GTN to manage either severe intra-operative hypertension or relaxation of the uterus to facilitate delivery during caesarian section
What is 50 micrograms (accept 25 - 100 micrograms)
500
The name of the false neurotransmitter that methyldopa is metabolised to, which is MAO resistant, accumulates and displaces noradrenaline from vesicles
What is alpha methyl noradrenaline