Anatomy and Physiology
The biceps brachii is an example of a(n) _____ muscle.
A Thoracic
B Neck
C Arm
D Leg
C Arm
Which of the following means “the study of diseases”?
A Cytology
B Histology
C Epidemiology
D Pathology
D Pathology
The root word path means “disease.” Path/o is the combining form. The suffix -logy means “the process of studying.” When interpreting the meaning of a medical term, the meaning of the suffix comes first and then the meaning of the root word; thus, when combined, pathology means “the study of diseases.”
Which of the following is NOT a task performed by a medical billing and coding specialist?
A Coding and classifying diagnoses and procedures
B Abstracting and entering data
C Creating clinical documentation
D Locating and releasing health information
C Creating clinical documentation
Which of the following is reported using HCPCS Level II codes?
B Inpatient procedures and services
C Diagnoses and conditions
D Outpatient procedures and services
The Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System, or HCPCS, has two levels of codes. HCPCS Level I codes are the CPT® codes that represent physician and nonphysician procedures and services. HCPCS Level II codes are different from CPT® and are 5-character alphanumeric codes for items and nonphysician services that are not represented in the Level I codes. HCPCS Level II codes are generally referenced as HCPCS, while the Level I codes are known as CPT®
Which organization developed ICD-10-PCS in partnership with 3M Health Information Systems?
A NCHS
B WHO
C CMS
D AMA
C CMS
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) developed the ICD-10-PCS code set in partnership with 3M Health Information Systems.
Which muscles are voluntary?
A Cardiac
B Skeletal
C Smooth
D Stomach
B Skeletal
Which term means “vomiting blood”?
A Hematemesis
B Hyperemesis
C Melena
D Hemoptysis
A Hematemesis
The root word hemat means “blood.” The suffix -emesis means “vomiting.” When interpreting the meaning of a medical term, the meaning of the suffix comes first and then the meaning of the root word, so hematemesis means “vomiting blood.”
Which information is typically included in operative records? Select all that apply:
A symptoms and vital signs
B Medication administration details
C Surgical technique used
D Laboratory test interpretations
E Anatomical structures involved
C Surgical technique used
E Anatomical structures involved
Which of the following would be considered a preventive care encounter?
A A patient undergoing treatment for cancer
B A patient being seen following a car accident
C A patient being seen for an annual physical examination
D A patient being seen for treatment of a chronic condition
C A patient being seen for an annual physical examination
Which of the following statements regarding HCPCS ambulance service modifiers is true? Select all that apply:
A Ambulance modifiers are used to report the origin and destination of transportation.
B The first character represents the destination, while the second character represents the origin/source.
C Ambulance modifiers are to be used with codes from the A section of HCPCS.
D Ambulance modifiers are created by combining two alpha characters.
A Ambulance modifiers are used to report the origin and destination of transportation.
D Ambulance modifiers are created by combining two alpha characters.
C Ambulance modifiers are to be used with codes from the A letter section of HCPCS.
The A section of HSPCS contains the codes for transport services that include nonemergency and emergency ambulance transportation services and supplies. Ambulance modifiers are used with A codes in HCPCS Level II to report the origin and destination of transportation. Ambulance modifiers consist of an initial alphabetic character representing the origin of the service and a second alphabetic character representing the destination of the service.
When searching for a code in the ICD-10-CM manual, the coder should begin by looking up a main term in the _____.
A Illustrations
B Tabular List
C Official Guidelines
D Alphabetic Index
D Alphabetic Index
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
A Protecting organs against injury
B Supporting the structure of the body
C Storing minerals
D Producing hormones
D Producing hormones
Which of the following is an acronym for a type of bone density test?
A LASIK
B TSH
C DEXA
D ORIF
C DEXA
DEXA stands for “dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry,” which is a type of bone density test that measures bone loss in conditions such as osteoporosis.
Which of the following statements best describes the admitting diagnosis?
A It is the diagnosis that is assigned to a patient at the time of inpatient admission.
B It is the condition established, after study, to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care.
C It is the diagnosis that must be coded for the encounter.
D It is a coexisting condition with a primary diagnosis.
A It is the diagnosis that is assigned to a patient at the time of inpatient admission.
The admitting diagnosis is the diagnosis that is assigned to a patient at the time of inpatient admission. The principal diagnosis is the condition established, after study, to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care and is not always the same as the admitting diagnosis. The diagnosis that must be coded with the encounter is the principal diagnosis. Diagnoses that constitute coexisting conditions are secondary diagnoses.
Which of the following statements regarding Category II codes is true? Select all that apply:
A They represent the majority of the Tabular List.
B They include evaluation and management services.
C They are numeric.
D They are optional codes used for tracking performance.
E They are not reimbursed by third-party payers.
E They are not reimbursed by third-party payers. & D They are optional codes used for tracking performance.
Category II codes are five characters consisting of four numbers followed by the letter “F.” Category II codes are optional codes that third-party payers do not reimburse. These codes are used to track patient performance for achieving medical goals.
An above-the-knee, molded socket prosthesis would be reported in which HCPCS Level II code range?
A P0000-P9999
B L0112-L4631
C M0000-M0301
D L5000-L5999
D L5000-L5999
Prosthetics procedures and services are reported with codes L5000–L9999. An above-the-knee, molded socket prosthesis would be reported in this HCPCS Level II code range.
Which statement best describes a subterm?
A It is also known as the “lead term.”
B It is the term that coders search in the Alphabetic Index when determining the code for a condition.
C It is an additional descriptor that provides information about the nature of the condition.
D It represents the patient’s condition or diagnosis.
C It is an additional descriptor that provides information about the nature of the condition.
Subterms are additional descriptors that provide information about the nature of the condition, such as its specific body area or its etiology (cause). The Alphabetic Index in ICD-10-CM is an alphabetic list of main terms, also known as lead terms, and subterms that are used to locate diagnostic codes. The main term represents the patient’s condition or diagnosis.
Which of the following make up the appendicular skeleton? Select all that apply:
A Upper extremities
B Vertebral column
C Pelvic girdle
D Pectoral girdle
E Lower extremities
A Upper extremities
C Pelvic girdle
D Pectoral girdle
E Lower extremities
Which of the following is an acronym for a mental health disorder?
A PEEP
B SAD
C PERRLA
D TENS
B SAD "seasonal affective disorder"
Which information should be included in a referral? Select all that apply:
A Laboratory results within normal ranges
B Reason for the referral
C Relevant medical history
D Surgical techniques used
B Reason for referral & C Relevant medical history
Referral information includes the reason for the referral, relevant medical history, and records of any specific tests or treatments already performed. This information assists the receiving healthcare provider in understanding the patient’s needs and facilitating appropriate care.
Which of the following statements regarding place-of-service codes is true? Select all that apply:
A A comprehensive list of place-of-service codes appears at the beginning of the CPT® coding manual and on the CMS website.
B Place-of-service codes are two-digit codes used on professional claims to identify the location in which a service was provided.
C Inaccuracy of a place-of-service code could result in claims being rejected or denied.
D Place-of-service codes are add-on codes to be assigned to certain services or procedures.
B & C & A
Place-of-service codes are two-digit codes used on professional claims to identify the location in which a service was provided. Accuracy of place-of-service codes on claims is important because an inaccurate place-of-service code could result in rejection or denial of the claim. A comprehensive list of place-of-service codes appears at the beginning of the CPT® coding manual and can also be accessed on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services website.
An assistive listening device for use with a cochlear implant would be reported in which HCPCS Level II code range?
A V0000-V2999
B W0000-W2999
C V5000-V5999
D U0001-U0005
C V5000-V5999
Hearing services are reported in the V5000–V5999 code range in HCPCS Level II. An assistive listening device for use with a cochlear implant would be reported in this code range.
The appendix hangs of the ____.
Cecum
Which procedure means “a surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove fluid”?
A Amniocentesis
B Arthroscopy
C Abdominocentesis
D Arthrocentesis
C Abdominocentesis
The root word abdomin means “abdomen.” Abdomin/o is the combining form. The suffix -centesis means “surgical puncture to remove fluid.” When interpreting the meaning of a medical term, the meaning of the suffix comes first and then the meaning of the root word; thus, when combined, abdominocentesis means “surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen.”
Which of the following statements regarding coding for outpatient settings is true?
A Associated signs and symptoms of a condition should be coded, even if a more specific diagnosis has been assigned.
B Conditions that are an integral part of a disease process should be assigned as additional codes.
C Probable or suspected diagnoses should not be coded; rather, the condition should be coded to the highest degree of certainty for the encounter.
D Probable or suspected diagnoses should be coded as if they exist.
C Probable or suspected diagnoses should not be coded; rather, the condition should be coded to the highest degree of certainty for the encounter.
In the outpatient setting, probable or suspected diagnoses should not be coded; rather, the condition should be coded to the highest degree of certainty for the encounter/visit, such as symptoms, signs, abnormal test results, or other reasons for the visit.
Which of the following are discrete categories of CPT® codes identified in the digital medicine section of the coding manual? Select all that apply:
A Digital diagnostic services
B Clinician-to-clinician consultations
C Clinician-to-patient visits
D Patient monitoring services
E Telephone services
C Clinician-to-patient visits & B Clinician-to-clinician consultations & D Patient monitoring services & A Digital diagnostic services
The CPT® coding manual digital medicine section identifies discrete categories of CPT® codes based on the following four categories: clinician-to-patient visits, clinician-to-clinician consultations, patient monitoring services, and digital diagnostic services. Telephone services are a classification of services under telemedicine and non-face-to-face E/M procedures and do not represent a discrete category of code.
A coding specialist must document the provision of two (2) units of intravenous (IV) administration of ibuprofen, 100mg. What is the correct format for coding the encounter?
A J1741.2
B Two doses X J1741
C J1741 X 2 units
D 2 X J1741
C J1741 X 2 units