Certified
Which of the following is NOT a primary administrative responsibility of a medical assistant?
A) Scheduling patient appointments
B) Managing medical supply inventory
C) Performing surgical procedures
D) Handling insurance coordination
C
Medical assistants handle administrative tasks but do not perform surgical procedures, which require advanced medical training.
HIPAA regulations primarily require medical assistants to:
A) Share patient information with family members
B) Maintain strict patient confidentiality
C) Discuss patient cases in public areas
D) Ignore patient privacy concerns
B
HIPAA mandates protecting patient health information and maintaining strict confidentiality.
When preparing laboratory specimens, a medical assistant must prioritize:
A) Speed of collection
B) Minimizing sample volume
C) Proper labeling and contamination prevention
D) Using the most expensive collection tools
C
Accurate labeling and preventing contamination are essential for reliable laboratory testing.
Inventory management for a medical assistant involves:
A) Purchasing expensive medical equipment
B) Tracking and restocking medical supplies
C) Designing medical instruments
D) Negotiating with pharmaceutical companies
B
Tracking and maintaining an adequate supply of medical materials is a key administrative responsibility.
When collecting patient vital signs, accuracy requires:
A) Using outdated measurement techniques
B) Minimizing patient interaction
C) Utilizing standardized measurement protocols
D) Ignoring patient comfort
C
Standardized protocols ensure consistent and reliable vital sign measurements.
What are two patient identifiers required to ensure accurate identification?
Full name and date of birth.
The Joint Commission requires at least two identifiers to verify patient identity and prevent errors. Name and DOB are most reliable during in-person encounters.
What is medication reconciliation and why is it important?
It is comparing the patient’s medication list with the medical record to ensure accuracy.
Prevents medication errors, duplications, and adverse drug interactions.
When documenting a patient’s chief complaint, how should it be recorded?
A. Using medical terminology
B. In the MAs own words, and in quotations
C. In the patients own words and in Quotations
D. Using a dictionary
In the patient’s own words and enclosed in quotation marks. This ensures the documentation reflects the patient’s perspective accurately.
Which artery is most commonly used to measure an adult’s pulse?
A. Carotid
B. Brachial
C. Radial
D. Femoral
C. Radial
The radial artery, located on the thumb side of the wrist, is the most common site for taking an adult’s pulse due to accessibility and safety.
Orthostatic hypotension is defined as:
A. Increase in BP during exercise
B. Drop in BP upon standing
C. Drop in BP during rest
D. Increase in pulse during sitting
B. Drop in BP upon standing
Orthostatic hypotension occurs when blood pressure drops significantly during positional changes, especially from lying to standing.
Which condition can cause a false low oxygen saturation reading on a pulse oximeter?
A. Warm fingers
B. Nail polish or artificial nails
C. Bright lighting
D. Deep breathing
B. Nail polish or artificial nails
Nail polish and artificial nails can block infrared light, preventing accurate readings.
Which site provides the most accurate core temperature?
A. Oral
B. Tympanic
C. Rectal
D. Axillary
C. Rectal
The rectal site reflects true core body temperature and is often 1°F higher than oral readings.
A temperature of 100.4°F is classified as:
A. Normal
B. Hypothermia
C. Pyrexia
D. Subnormal
C. Pyrexia
Pyrexia, or fever, begins at 100.4°F and indicates infection or inflammation.
Which factor would cause a false elevation in blood pressure reading?
A. Patient’s arm above heart level
B. Using too large a cuff
C. Patient’s legs crossed
D. Patient rested for 10 minutes
C. Patient’s legs crossed
Crossing legs raises systolic pressure 2–8 mm Hg due to increased venous return.
Which of the following represents a hypertensive crisis?
A. 118/78 mm Hg
B. 140/90 mm Hg
C. 160/100 mm Hg
D. 190/120 mm Hg
D. 190/120 mm Hg
Blood pressure higher than 180/120 mm Hg requires immediate medical attention.
Which of the following describes tachypnea?
A. Slow breathing
B. Rapid breathing
C. Irregular rhythm
D. Deep breathing
B. Rapid breathing
Tachypnea refers to an abnormally fast respiratory rate, typically above 20 breaths/min in adults.
Tachy = Fast/Rapid
Brady = Slow
Which Korotkoff phase is recorded as the systolic pressure?
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase IV
D. Phase V
A. Phase I
The first sharp tapping sound heard during blood pressure measurement indicates systolic pressure—Phase I of Korotkoff sounds
Systolic and diastolic pressure readings are phase I (the first sound heard, systolic) and V (the final sound heard, diastolic) of the Korotkoff sounds. Korotkoff sounds are distinct sounds that are heard throughout the cardiac cycle. In phase II, there is a swishing sound as more blood flows through the artery. In Korotkoff phase III, sharp tapping sounds are noted as more blood surges. In phase IV, the sound changes to a soft tapping sound, which begins to muffle
Which structure attaches a muscle to a bone?
A. Ligament
B. Tendon
C. Cartilage
D. Fascia
B. Tendon
Tendons connect skeletal muscles to bones, allowing movement.
Fibromyalgia is characterized by:
A. Joint inflammation
B. Widespread musculoskeletal pain
C. Muscle atrophy
D. Bone fractures
B. Widespread musculoskeletal pain
Fibromyalgia involves chronic pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances without joint inflammation
The pacemaker of the heart is:
A. AV node
B. Bundle of His
C. Purkinje fibers
D. SA node
D. SA node
The sinoatrial (SA) node generates electrical impulses that initiate heart contractions.
Which valve prevents backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Bicuspid (mitral) valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Aortic valve
B. Bicuspid (mitral) valve
The mitral valve prevents blood from returning to the left atrium during ventricular contraction.
The primary function of the kidneys is:
A. Pump blood
B. Produce urine and filter blood
C. Store bile
D. Absorb nutrients
B. Produce urine and filter blood
Kidneys remove waste and maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is caused by:
A. H. pylori infection
B. Backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus
C. Gallstones
D. Crohn’s disease
B. Backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus
GERD occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter allows stomach acid to flow back, causing heartburn.
Which of the following is the most common cancer in men?
A. Testicular cancer
B. Prostate cancer
C. Epididymitis
D. Hypogonadism
B. Prostate cancer
Prostate cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in men. Early detection is vital for effective treatment.
Which STI is linked to cervical cancer?
A. Chlamydia
B. Gonorrhea
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D. Genital herpes
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains increases the risk of cervical and other cancers.