Patient-Assistant Interaction, Screening, and Emergencies I
What is the primary purpose of triage?
A. to obtain the patient's complete ophthalmic history
B. to diagnose the patient's problems
C. to classify the patient's chief complaint according to its severity and urgency
D. to schedule office appointments according to the availability of the physician
C. to classify the patient's chief complaint according to its severity and urgency
Which of the following modes of drug delivery involves placing the drug directly on the surface of the eye?
A. Periocular
B. Sub-Tenon's
C. Subcutaneous
D. Topical
D. Topical
Which statement is correct regarding topical eye medication?
A. Suspensions don't require preservatives.
B. Solutions prevent systemic absorption.
C. Properly administered ointments do not blur vision.
D. Suspensions must be shaken vigorously before use.
D. Suspensions must be shaken vigorously before use.
Of the following, which situation should be treated as an emergency requiring immediate action?
A. recent onset of flashes of light
B. loss of contact lenses needed for work
C. mucous discharge from the eye
D. sudden, painless, severe loss of vision
D. sudden, painless, severe loss of vision
When interacting with a visually impaired or blind patient, the ophthalmic medical assistant should:
A. Approach quietly to avoid startling the patient
B. Speak through an accompanying companion
C. Speak loudly to ensure comprehension
D. Face the patient and say the patient's name
D. Face the patient and say the patient's name
In applanation tonometry, excessive width of the mires can indicate:
A. improper alignment of the prism.
B. a need for recalibration of the instrument.
C. too little fluorescein.
D. too much fluorescein.
D. too much fluorescein.
When performing the cover-uncover test, the examiner notices that the uncovered eye moves in order to fixate on the target. What does this probably represent?
A. tropia
B. suppression
C. phoria
D. amblyopia
A. tropia
Generally, urgent situations are those requiring that the patient be seen within what timeframe?
A. 3 to 6 hours
B. 24 to 48 hours
C. 5 to 7 days
D. 1 to 2 weeks
B. 24 to 48 hours
Which is the MOST important instruction regarding the instillation of eye drops?
A. Lie down
B. Pull up the upper lid
C. Pull down the lower lid
D. Touch the tip of the bottle to the eyelid
C. Pull down the lower lid
What is an important factor in the delivery of eye medication?
A. Instilling extra drops of medication at the same time
B. Massaging the tear duct before using drops
C. Contamination of the tip of the bottle by the eye lashes
D. Prolonging medication contact time with the eye
D. Prolonging medication contact time with the eye
In encounters with irate or hostile patients, the best approach an ophthalmic medical assistant can take is to:
A. Try to convince them they are unreasonable
B. Listen calmly to their complaints and apologize for any misunderstanding
C. Ignore them until they calm down
D. Superglue their mouth shut
D. Superglue their mouth shut
JUST KIDDING!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
B. Listen calmly to their complaints and apologize for any misunderstanding
Approximately 95% of all individuals over age 65 have some degree of:
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Diabetes
D. Diplopia
B. Cataract
During the cover-uncover test, neither eye moves when the cover is removed. This probably represents which of the following?
A. tropia
B. suppression
C. orthophoria
D. amblyopia
C. orthophoria
What is tested when the cardinal positions of gaze are evaluated?
A. convergence
B. divergence
C. fusion
D. function of the 6 extraocular muscles
D. function of the 6 extraocular muscles
If the ophthalmic medical assistant notices a discrepancy between a patient's report of a traumatic injury and the injury itself, what should the assistant do?
A. confront the injured patient immediately
B. inform the ophthalmologist in private, without the patient present
C. inform the ophthalmologist in the presence of the patient
D. disregard the discrepancy, as this matter is not the responsibility of the ophthalmic medical assistant.
B. inform the ophthalmologist in private, without the patient present
Patients most commonly cite which systemic drug as producing as allergic or bad reaction?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ampicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Tobramycin
B. Ampicillin
Which statement is correct regarding side effects of ophthalmic medications?
A. Miotics may cause rapid pulse and dry mouth.
B. Anesthetics prevent an allergic reaction by deadening a nerve.
C. Cycloplegics may precipitate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma.
D. Unlike systemic corticosteroid therapy, topical application does not cause cataracts.
C. Cycloplegics may precipitate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma.
Which of the conditions listed below may be characterized by a white pupillary reflex in a pediatric patient?
A. Choroidal nevus
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Iris coloboma
D. Retinoblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma
A patient with insulin-dependent diabetes suddenly becomes sweaty, dizzy, and disoriented while waiting to see the ophthalmologist. The assistant, acting in compliance with the office's emergency procedures, should first:
A. Reschedule the appointment and send the patient home.
B. Have the patient lie down until the episode passes.
C. Give the patient fruit juice or candy to stabilize the blood sugar level
D. Have the patient drink one or two glasses of water
C. Give the patient fruit juice or candy to stabilize the blood sugar level (or a glucose gummy)
What is the diameter of the plastic prism comprised of a flat surface within the applanation tonometer?
A. 1.5 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 6.0 mm
D. 7.0 mm
B. 3.0 mm
The size of an ocular deviation may be measured by which of the following?
A. prism and alternate cover test
B. Worth 4-dot test
C. Titmus fly
D. exophthalmometer
A. prism and alternate cover test
A patient telephones the ophthalmologist's office reporting an alkali burn in the eye. What should the ophthalmic assistant instruct the patient to do?
A. patch the eye, and proceed immediately to the office or emergency facility
B. keep the eye closed, and proceed immediately to the office or emergency facility
C. irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes, and then proceed to the office or emergency facility
D. put a lubricating ointment on the eye, and proceed immediately to the office or emergency
C. irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes, and then proceed to the office or emergency facility
Which of the following medications may cause rapid pulse?
A. atropine
B. timolol
C. nepafenac
D. neomycin
A. atropine
Brow ache, myopia, and retinal detachment are possible side effects of what type of medication?
A. miotics
B. cycloplegics
C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D. prostaglandin analogs
A. miotics
A papoose board is useful in:
A. Propping up a toddler at the slit lamp
B. Immobilizing an infant during ophthalmic evaluation
C. Transporting a toddler from one examining room to another
D. Testing visual acuity in school-age children who cannot identify letters
E. Water boarding
B. Immobilizing an infant during ophthalmic evaluation
When testing visual acuity in elderly patients, the ophthalmic medical assistant should:
A. Concentrate on distance acuity, as near acuity is not important in this age group.
B. Require that these patients respond quickly to obtain an objective measurement.
C. Adjust the lighting to avoid glare which is often a problem in this age group.
D. Use the Allen chart rather than the Snellen chart when testing distance acuity.
E. Talk exceedingly slowly and loudly since many elderly people have hearing problems.
C. Adjust the lighting to avoid glare which is often a problem in this age group.
The calibration of the Goldmann applanation tonometer should be checked at which settings?
A. 0,1,2
B. 0,2,4
C. 0,2,6
D. 0,4,8
C. 0,2,6
What measurement error is produced when the fluorescein rings are too narrow during applanation tonometry?
A. Falsely low reading
B. No error, measurement is accurate.
C. Falsely high reading
D. Means calibration of prism is off.
A. Falsely low reading
When assisting a patient who feels faint in the office, what should the ophthalmic medical assistant do first?
A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
B. Get the emergency chart.
C. Splash water on the patient's face.
D. Get the patient's head below the heart.
E. Call an ambulance.
D. Get the patient's head below the heart.
Which statement is correct regarding antimicrobial therapy?
A. So-called 'fortified' antibiotics are available without a prescription.
B. Topical antibiotics inhibit bacterial growth but systemic antibiotics kill bacteria.
C. Single antifungal or antiviral agents are widely used as a preventive measure.
D. Antivirals inhibit the ability of viruses to reproduce.
D. Antivirals inhibit the ability of viruses to reproduce.
A patient has a flare-up of iritis. What is the most appropriate topical medication for treating this problem?
A. proparacaine ophthalmic solution
B. cyclosporine A emulsion
C. prednisolone acetate 1% suspension
D. timolol 1% solution
C. prednisolone acetate 1% suspension
The "fix and follow" method of evaluating visual function is generally used with:
A. Infants
B. School-age children
C. Elderly patients
D. Patients with low vision
A. Infants
When the ophthalmic medical assistant asks a literate 8-year-old patient to read the visual acuity chart, the child begins reciting the alphabet. The most effective action the assistant can take to get the test results needed is to:
A. Praise the child for trying hard to cooperate
B. Ask the parent to get the child started reading the chart
C. Ask the child to start at the beginning of the chart and say each letter separately
D. Move the child closer to the chart
C. Ask the child to start at the beginning of the chart and say each letter separately
Killing of the HIV and other viruses on the applanation prism is BEST accomplished by soaking in:
A. Diluted betadine.
B. Gentamicin solution.
C. Gentamicin solution.
D. Sodium hypochlorite (chlorine bleach).
D. Sodium hypochlorite (chlorine bleach).
What combination of extraocular muscle actions occur when a patient looks to their left?
A. L lateral rectus contracts. R lateral rectus relaxes
B. L lateral rectus contracts. R lateral rectus contracts
C. L medial rectus contracts. R lateral rectus relaxes
D. L medial rectus relaxes. R medial rectus relaxes
A. L lateral rectus contracts. R lateral rectus relaxes