Minor Surgical Assisting in Office I
Minor Surgical Assisting in Office II
Refractive Surgery: Concepts & Procedures
Wild Card Review!
Pharmacology Review Part I
Pharmacology Review Part II
100

Which suture material is not broken down by the body but must be removed from the suture site?

A. polypropylene

B. collagen

C. gut

D. polyglactin 910

A. polypropylene

100

What minor ophthalmic procedure is typically performed at the exam room slit-lamp biomicroscope? 

A. PRK

B. Cataract surgery

C. Corneal debridement 

D. AC re-bubble

C. Corneal debridement

100

Contraindications to refractive surgery include all of the following except:

A. Contact lens-induced corneal warpage

B. Progressive myopia

C. Glaucoma

D. Corneal ectasia

C. Glaucoma

100

What is the term for an area of complete or partial blindness in an otherwise normal visual field?

A. Scotoma

B. Synechiae

C. Stye

D. Stroma

A. Scotoma

100

Patients most commonly cite which systemic drug as producing as allergic or bad reaction?

A. Acetaminophen

B. Ampicillin

C. Tetracycline

D. Tobramycin

 

B. Ampicillin

100

Which of the following medications may cause rapid pulse? 

A. atropine

B. timolol 

C. nepafenac 

D. neomycin

A. atropine

200

Which statement applies to the discussion involved in obtaining informed consent?

A. It is necessary only before a major surgical procedure.

B. It occurs between the patient and the ophthalmic medical assistant.

C. It covers the benefits as well as the risks of the procedure.

D. It is conducted mainly for the protection of the surgeon.

C. It covers the benefits as well as the risks of the procedure.

200

All of the following are examples of MINOR Procedures except:

A. Chalazion removal

B. Punctal irrigation

C. Penetrating Keratoplasty

D. Foreign body removal

C. Penetrating Keratoplasty

200

In the absence of accommodation, the myopic eye focuses images:

A. In front of the retina

B. Behind the retina

C. In front of the lens

D. On the sclera

A. In front of the retina

200

Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to cause a dendritic corneal ulcer?

A. Adenovirus

B. Herpes simplex virus

C. Pneumococcus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Herpes simplex virus

200

Which statement is correct regarding side effects of ophthalmic medications? 

A. Miotics may cause rapid pulse and dry mouth. 

B. Anesthetics prevent an allergic reaction by deadening a nerve. 

C. Cycloplegics may precipitate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma.

D. Unlike systemic corticosteroid therapy, topical application does not cause cataracts. 

C. Cycloplegics may precipitate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma.

200

Which is the MOST important instruction regarding the installation of eye drops?

A. Lie down

B. Pull up the upper lid

C. Pull down the lower lid

D. Touch the tip of the bottle to the eyelid

C. Pull down the lower lid

300

Which task is the ophthalmic medical assistant's responsibility when caring for a patient who is undergoing minor surgery?

A. initiating the discussion of informed consent

B. prepping the patient for the procedure

C. administering a local anesthetic by injection

D. determining when the patient is steady enough to leave the office

B. prepping the patient for the procedure

300

In lacrimal-system probing, what is a cannula used for?

A. enlarge the small punctal opening

B. scoop out unwanted tissue

C. hold the suture needle steady

D. flush out a tear duct with an irrigating solution

D. flush out a tear duct with an irrigating solution

300

Wavefront Analysis measurement is measured by using:

A. Keratometry

B. Pachymetry

C. Aberrometry

D. Videokeratography


C. Aberrometry

300

Shining a bright light into one eye normally causes both pupils to constrict equally. The pupillary reaction in the illuminated eye is called:

A. indirect light reflex.

B. consensual light reflex.

C. direct light reflex.

D. near light reflex.

C. direct light reflex.

300

Brow ache, myopia, and retinal detachment are possible side effects of what type of medication? 

A. miotics

B. cycloplegics 

C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 

D. prostaglandin analogs

A. miotics

300

What cycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting effect?

A. Homatropine

B. Atropine Sulfate

C. Tropicamide

D. Cyclopentolate 

B. Atropine Sulfate

400


The rhomboid-shaped needle point used in procedures involving the cornea or sclera, where the plane of penetration must be precise, is the:

A. Cutting point

B. Reverse-cutting point

C. Spatula point

D. Taper point

C. Spatula point

400

All of the following are considered to be within the sterile operating field except:

A. The instrument tray

B. Masks

C. Gloves

D. Drapes


B. Masks

400

Hyperopic eyes are benefited by refractive procedures that:

A. Dilate the pupil

B. Steepen the cornea

C. Decrease the power of the crystalline lens

D. Decrease the corneal thickness

B. Steepen the cornea

400

A statement that describes the BEST use of A-scan ultrasonography would be to:

A. detect a choroidal detachment.

B. detect a retinal detachment.

C. define the size and location of intraocular masses.

D. depict a two-dimensional image of the orbit and globe.

C. define the size and location of intraocular masses.

400

Which statement is correct regarding antimicrobial therapy? 

A. So-called 'fortified' antibiotics are available without a prescription. 

B. Topical antibiotics inhibit bacterial growth but systemic antibiotics kill bacteria. 

C. Single antifungal or antiviral agents are widely used as a preventive measure. 

D. Antivirals inhibit the ability of viruses to reproduce.

D. Antivirals inhibit the ability of viruses to reproduce.

400

Which eye drop inactivates the sphincter muscle of the iris?

A. Cycloplegic

B. Anesthetic

C. Miotic

D. Mydriatic

A. Cycloplegic

500

What does the surgeon use to maintain hemostasis during a surgical procedure?

A. curettes

B. cannulas

C. clamps

D. forceps

C. clamps

500

Of the following, the suture size least likely to be used for eye surgery is:

A. 2-0

B. 5-0

C. 8-0

D. 10-0

A. 2-0

500

Intracorneal ring segments are used to treat all of the following except:

A. Early keratoconus

B. Low levels of myopia

C. Low levels of hyperopia

D. Ectasia after LASIK surgery

C. Low levels of hyperopia

500

What happens at the chiasmal junction?

A. All nerve fibers from the right eye cross to the left side of the brain and vice versa.

B. Some of the nasal and some of the temporal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.

C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.

D. The temporal nerve fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.

C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.

500

A patient has a flare-up of iritis. What is the most appropriate topical medication for treating this problem?

A. proparacaine ophthalmic solution  

B. cyclosporine A emulsion 

C. prednisolone acetate 1% suspension

D. timolol 1% solution 

C. prednisolone acetate 1% suspension

500

What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma?

A. Constriction of the pupil

B. Reduction of pressure in the aqueous veins

C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body

D. Increased rate of flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork

C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body