Neuro
Cardiac
Mental health
OB/Peds
Rando
100

A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a severe traumatic brain injury and has an intraventricular catheter (ventriculostomy) placed for intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing Cushing's triad? 

  • A. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension
  • B. Widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
  • C. Hypotension, bradypnea, and bounding peripheral pulses
  • D. Hyperthermia, tachycardia, and narrow pulse pressure

 Correct Answer: B

  • Rationale: Cushing's triad is a hallmark, late physiological response to severely increased intracranial pressure (ICP) signaling impending brainstem herniation. It is characterized by three signs: a widening pulse pressure (systolic hypertension with stable/dropped diastolic), bradycardia, and irregular/slow respirations.
  • Why other choices are incorrect: Option A describes hypovolemic or neurogenic shock dynamics. Option C features hypotension, which does not map to the body's compensatory sympathetic surge to force blood into a high-pressure skull. Option D describes general autonomic stress but not the structural triad.
100

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute decompensated left-sided heart failure. Which of the following assessment findings requires the most immediate nursing intervention?

A) Jugular venous distension measuring 6 cm above the sternal angle

B) Bilateral +2 pitting edema in the lower extremities

C)Frothy, pink-tinged sputum with bilateral crackles

D) Decreased appetite and early satiety during meals


C) Frothy, pink-tinged sputum with bilateral crackles


  • Explanation: Correct! Frothy, pink-tinged sputum combined with crackles indicates acute pulmonary edema, a life-threatening complication of left-sided heart failure that compromises the ABCs (Breathing/Oxygenation) and requires immediate intervention.


100

A nurse is reviewing telephone messages in an outpatient mental health clinic. Which of the following clients should the nurse return the call to first?

  • A. A client taking sertraline who reports a decreased libido.
  • B. A client taking olanzapine who reports dry mouth and constipation.
  • C. A client taking lamotrigine who reports a new blister-like rash on their upper chest.
  • D. A client taking methylphenidate who reports insomnia and a decreased appetite.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rash or blisters while taking lamotrigine can indicate Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), a rare, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that requires immediate medical intervention. Decreased libido (A), dry mouth/constipation (B), and insomnia/appetite loss (D) are expected, non-urgent side effects of those respective medications.

100

A nurse is performing an assessment on an infant who is diagnosed with pyloric stenosis. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?

  • A. Steatorrhea (fatty, foul-smelling stools).
  • B. Projectile vomiting after feedings.
  • C. Currant jelly-like stools containing blood and mucus.
  • D. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the pyloric sphincter, which prevents gastric contents from entering the small intestine. This blockage results in classic projectile vomiting shortly after eating, and a palpable olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant. Currant-jelly stools (C) are a hallmark sign of intussusception.

100

A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

  • A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
  • B. White blood cell count 10,500/mm³
  • C. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
  • D. Platelet count 160,000/mm³

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates severe hypokalemia, which puts the client at risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. This requires immediate notification and replacement therapy. A slight drop in hemoglobin (A) and a mild elevation in WBCs (B) are common stress responses post-surgery. Platelets (D) are within normal limits.

200

A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who arrives within 45 minutes of experiencing acute ischemic stroke symptoms. Which of the following assessment findings represents an absolute contraindication to the administration of intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA)? 

  • A. Blood pressure of 168/98 mm Hg
  • B. Age greater than 75 years
  • C. History of mild type 2 diabetes mellitus well-controlled on metformin
  • D. Significant head trauma and major surgery within the past 14 days

Correct Answer: D

  • Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy with rt-PA dissolves blood clots indiscriminately throughout the body. Major surgery or severe head trauma within the previous 14 days leaves unhealed internal wounds that would bleed uncontrollably if tPA were given, making this an absolute contraindication.
  • Why other choices are incorrect: Option A is incorrect because a BP of 168/98 mm Hg is below the 185/110 mm Hg tPA threshold and can be safely managed with acute antihypertensives. Options B and C are relative cautions or non-factors depending on overall clinical benefit.
200
A nurse is assessing a client with chronic right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment?
A) Dependent sacral and pedal edema
B) Dry, hacking cough that worsens during the night hours
C) An S3 gallop sound upon cardiac auscultation
D) Dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea


A) Dependent sacral and pedal edema


  • Explanation: Correct! Right-sided heart failure causes the right ventricle to fail, leading to systemic venous congestion and dependent edema (such as pedal and sacral edema).


200

 

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lithium carbonate to treat bipolar disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

  • A. "Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day."
  • B. "Maintain a consistent intake of dietary sodium."
  • C. "Take ibuprofen if you experience a mild headache."
  • D. "Stop taking the medication as soon as your mood stabilizes."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium is a salt, and its excretion is closely tied to sodium levels. Decreasing sodium intake or becoming dehydrated causes the kidneys to reabsorb lithium, risking lithium toxicity. Fluid intake should remain around 2 to 3 L/day. NSAIDs like ibuprofen (C) increase lithium levels and should be avoided. Medications should never be stopped abruptly (D).

200

A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for digoxin to treat congestive heart failure. Prior to administering the medication, the nurse notes the infant’s apical pulse is 82 beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  • A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
  • B. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider.
  • C. Administer half of the prescribed dose.
  • D. Recheck the pulse in 2 hours and give the dose then.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an infant, digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is below 90 beats per minute (for older children, typically held if below 70/min). A heart rate of 82 indicates potential digoxin toxicity or bradycardia, requiring the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the provider immediately.

200

A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  • A. Document this as an expected finding indicating lung re-expansion.
  • B. Clamp the chest tube permanently.
  • C. Check the system for an air leak.
  • D. Increase the suction wall pressure.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates a system air leak, which requires the nurse to check all connections from the insertion site down to the drainage unit. Intermittent bubbling is normal with coughing or expiration, but continuous bubbling is abnormal. Clamping a tube permanently (B) can cause a tension pneumothorax.

300

A client is admitted following an acute cervical spinal cord injury and presents with flaccid paralysis, loss of reflexes below the injury level, and bradycardia. The nurse recognizes that the client is experiencing which of the following conditions?

 

  • A. Autonomic dysreflexia
  • B. Spinal shock
  • C. Brown-Séquard syndrome
  • D. Central cord syndrome


Correct Answer: B

  • Rationale: Spinal shock is a temporary physiological response occurring immediately after an acute spinal cord injury, characterized by total loss of motor function, sensation, and spinal reflex activity below the level of injury, accompanied by flaccid paralysis. Bradycardia and hypotension can occur due to loss of sympathetic tone.
  • Why other choices are incorrect: Option A (autonomic dysreflexia) features extreme hypertension and occurs later, after spinal shock resolves. Options C and D are specific incomplete spinal cord syndromes with distinct asymmetrical tracking, not general flaccid shock.
300

A client is newly diagnosed with chronic atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response (RVR). The nurse recognizes that this client is at highest risk for which of the following long-term or acute complications?

A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome secondary to microvascular collapse
B) Ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest
C) Thromboembolic stroke
D) Severe hypovolemic shock from plasma extravasation


C) Thromboembolic stroke


  • Explanation: Correct! In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver rather than contract effectively, causing blood stasis in the atrial appendages. This pooling promotes thrombus formation, which can dislodge and travel to the cerebral circulation, causing a stroke.


300

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking haloperidol. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing severe tongue protrusion, neck twisting, and upward deviation of the eyes. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

  • A. Benztropine
  • B. Lorazepam
  • C. Propranolol
  • D. Dantrolene

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of an acute dystonic reaction, a severe extrapyramidal side effect (EPS) of first-generation antipsychotics. Anticholinergic medications, such as intramuscular or intravenous benztropine or diphenhydramine, provide rapid relief. Lorazepam (B) is a benzodiazepine, propranolol (C) treats akathisia, and dantrolene (D) treats neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

300

A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant during a well-child visit. Which of the following developmental milestones should the nurse expect the infant to have achieved?

  • A. Walking while holding onto furniture.
  • B. Rolling from back to stomach.
  • C. Saying three to five words with meaning.
  • D. Building a tower of two blocks.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rolling completely over from back to stomach (and vice versa) is an expected gross motor milestone for a 6-month-old infant. "Cruising" or walking while holding onto furniture (A) occurs closer to 11–12 months. Saying words with meaning (C) and building two-block towers (D) are milestones expected around 12 months.

300

A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client. Which of the following actions must the nurse take to ensure proper client safety?

  • A. Verify the client's identity and blood product compatibility with another registered nurse.
  • B. Infuse the unit of packed red blood cells over a period of 6 hours.
  • C. Use regular microbore IV tubing with a 5% dextrose solution.
  • D. Take the client's vital signs every hour throughout the entire infusion.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood products must always be verified by two qualified licensed professionals (usually two RNs) at the bedside before administration. Blood must be infused within a maximum of 4 hours to prevent bacterial growth (B). It must be run with 0.9% normal saline, never dextrose (C). Vital signs are typically checked before starting, 15 minutes into the infusion, and at the end (D).

400

A nurse is monitoring a client undergoing video EEG monitoring who experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions is the highest priority for the nurse during the ictal phase? 

  • A. Insert a padded tongue blade into the client's mouth to prevent airway occlusion
  • B. Ease the client to the floor (if not already in bed), turn the client to a side-lying position, and protect the head
  • C. Restrain the client's arms and legs tightly to prevent violent flailing motions
  • D. Attempt to administer oral anti-seizure medication immediately

Correct Answer: B

  • Rationale: Airway maintenance and injury prevention are the primary concerns during an active generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Easing the client down, turning them onto their side to keep the tongue and secretions from occluding the airway, and padding the head take immediate precedence.
  • Why other choices are incorrect: Option A is highly dangerous; forcing an object into a client's clenched mouth can shatter teeth, lacerate tissues, and completely occlude the airway. Option C can cause fractures or soft-tissue tears. Option D presents an extreme aspiration risk.
400

A nurse is caring for a client following open-heart surgery who suddenly develops muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and jugular venous distension (Beck's triad). Which condition does the nurse immediately suspect?

A) Cardiac tamponade

B) Acute anterior wall myocardial infarction

C) Left ventricular wall rupture with aneurysm

D) Tension pneumothorax with mediastinal shift











A) Cardiac tamponade
  • Explanation: Correct! Beck's triad—muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and jugular venous distension—is the classic presentation of cardiac tamponade, where fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart chambers, severely impairing cardiac output.





400

A nurse is conducting an initial client interview in an outpatient clinic. Which action is the priority?

  • A. Coordinate holistic care with social services.
  • B. Identify the client's perception of their mental health status.
  • C. Include the client's family in the interview process.
  • D. Teach the client about their current mental health disorder.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment is the first step, allowing the nurse to understand insight and baseline coping before planning interventions.

400

A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and receiving an oxytocin infusion. The nurse notes a pattern of late decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

  • A. Increase the rate of the oxytocin infusion.
  • B. Assist the client into a lateral position.
  • C. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
  • D. Document the findings as an expected variation.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and are non-reassuring. The immediate priority action is to turn the client to their side (lateral position) to relieve pressure on the vena cava and optimize placental perfusion. The oxytocin infusion must be stopped, not increased (A). Oxygen should be given via a non-rebreather mask at 8 to 10 L/min, not a nasal cannula (C).

400

A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult client who weighs 140 lbs. Which of the following sites is the preferred, safest choice for a deep IM injection?

  • A. Dorsogluteal
  • B. Ventrogluteal
  • C. Deltoid
  • D. Vastus lateralis

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred and safest injection site for adults because it contains a thick muscle mass, lacks major nerves and blood vessels, and has a lower fat content than the dorsogluteal site (which is no longer recommended due to proximity to the sciatic nerve).

500

A nurse is assessing a client who sustained a basilar skull fracture following a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find during the focused neurological and physical assessment? 

  • A. Bilateral symmetrical pinpoint pupils and flaccid paralysis
  • B. Cushing's reflex and projectile vomiting without headache
  • C. Ecchymosis behind the mastoid process and cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea
  • D. Contralateral hemiplegia and homonymous hemianopsia

 Correct Answer: C

  • Rationale: A basilar skull fracture involves a break at the base of the cranium. Hallmark signs include Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the mastoid process/ear), Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis), and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ears (otorrhea) or nose (rhinorrhea).
  • Why other choices are incorrect: Option A maps to pontine or severe structural brainstem compression. Option B outlines general elevated ICP. Option D represents a focal cortical defect like an ischemic stroke.
500

A client returns to the unit following a left heart catheterization performed via the right femoral artery. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for immediate post-procedure safety? 

A) Encourage the client to ambulate to the bathroom 1 hour post-procedure

B) Maintain the client in a flat supine position with the affected right leg completely straight

C) Apply a warm moist heating pad to the right groin puncture site every 30 minutes

D) Check distal pulses and puncture site integrity every 4 hours during the recovery phase






B) Maintain the client in a flat supine position with the affected right leg completely straight

Explanation: Correct! Keeping the affected extremity straight and the client flat/supine prevents disruption of the femoral artery closure site or bleeding/hematoma formation.


500

A client is actively destroying a television and yelling. What is the nurse's first action?

  • A. Place the client in a seclusion room.
  • B. Call for assistance and clear other clients from the area.
  • C. Approach from behind to restrain arms.
  • D. Administer a sedative.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Environmental safety and securing backup are the immediate priorities.

500

A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks of gestation who presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and dark red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

  • A. Placenta previa
  • B. Abruptio placentae
  • C. Ectopic pregnancy
  • D. Cervical insufficiency

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae (premature separation of the placenta) is characterized by painful, dark red vaginal bleeding, uterine rigidity, and severe abdominal pain. In contrast, placenta previa (A) presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. An ectopic pregnancy (C) presents in the first trimester, not at 34 weeks.

500

A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following structural findings should the nurse expect?

  • A. Pectus excavatum
  • B. An increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
  • C. Asymmetrical chest expansion
  • D. Lordosis

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-standing air trapping in COPD causes hyperinflation of the lungs, leading to a barrel chest, which is characterized by an increased AP chest diameter (equal 1:1 ratio instead of the normal 1:2 ratio). Asymmetrical chest expansion (C) points to conditions like a pneumothorax or atelectasis.