Breast
More Breast
Breast/Liver
CNS
More CNS
100

Which patient would gain the greatest benefit in local control from RT? A. 0.9 cm grade 3 DCIS s/p lumpectomy with negative margin B. 1.8 cm grade 2 DCIS s/p lumpectomy with negative margin C. 7 cm DCIS s/p mastectomy with negative margins D. 4.5 cm DCIS s/p mastectomy with a positive margin

0.9 cm grade 3 DCIS s/p lumpectomy with negative margin (grade 3 = higher risk DCIS)

100

What is the BEST treatment for a 55 year-old female who underwent breast-conserving surgery for a pT1cN1mi cM0 ER+ HER2- breast cancer and 21 gene recurrence score of 22? Include RT and systemic therapy recs.

RT followed by endocrine therapy

100

For which age group does the use of screening mammography avoid the most breast cancer deaths? A. 39 - 49 B. 50 - 59 C. 60 - 69 D. 70 - 74

60 - 69

100

What is the recommended conventionally fractionated prescription dose range for non-functioning pituitary adenomas?

45 - 54 Gy

100

What function is associated with the occipital lobe of the brain?

vision

200

What were the 5-year local control results for the 1-week regimens of the FAST-Forward phase III RCT as compared to 3-week hypofractionated breast RT? A. Increased ipsilateral breast tumor relapse B. Increased locoregional relapse C. Non-inferior ipsilateral breast tumor relapse D. Non-inferior ipsilateral breast tumor relapse but increased locoregional relapse

Non-inferior ipsilateral breast tumor relapse. Remember: 40 Gy in 15 fractions, 27 Gy in 5 fractions over 1 wk, and 26 Gy in 5 fractions over 1 wk. IBTR 2.1%, 1.7% and 1.4%.  Patient  and  photographic  assessments  showed  higher  normal  tissue  effect  risk  for  27  Gy 

200

Which is associated with the highest risk of locoregional recurrence after neoadjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer? A. Clinically node negative with residual nodal disease after chemotherapy B. Complete response in the lymph nodes and the breast C. Complete response in the lymph nodes but not the breast D. Clinically node positive with residual nodal disease after chemotherapy

Clinically node positive with residual nodal disease after chemotherapy

200

In the 2014 Early Breast Cancer Trialists' Collaborative Group meta-analysis examining the effect of PMRT after MRM, what was the decrease in 20-year breast cancer mortality with the use of RT for those with node-positive breast cancer? A. 3% B. 8% C. 13% D. 18%

8%

200

What imaging characteristic of glioma is MOST indicative of low grade histology? A. Intratumoral hemorrhage B. High relative cerebral blood volume C. Marked mass effect D. Lack of contrast enhancement

Lack of contrast enhancement

200

What connects the lateral and third ventricles?

Foramen of Monro

300

Which clinical finding is characteristic of locally advanced breast cancer? A. Bloody nipple discharge B. Mobile axillary lymph nodes C. Nipple retraction D. Palpable supraclavicular node

Palpable supraclavicular node

300

Which characteristic is MOST typical of an inflammatory breast cancer? A. A discrete breast mass B. Slow disease progression C. Erythema over an otherwise normal breast D. Warmth and edema

Warmth and edema

300

Which of the following is NOT used in calculating a patient’s Child-Pugh Score? A. Ascites B. Bilirubin C. Creatinine D. Albumin

Creatinine

300

A histological WHO grade II diffuse astrocytic glioma is found to be IDH wild-type. Which molecular criteria would suggest this glioma will follow an aggressive clinical course like glioblastoma? A. 1p/19q codeletion B. TERT promoter mutation C. Lack of MGMT methylation D. SYT gene amplification

TERT promoter mutation (histologic grade II and III IDH-wildtype diffuse astrocytic gliomas which contain high-level EGFR amplification, the combination of whole chromosome 7 gain and whole chromosome 10 loss (+ 7/− 10), or TERT promoter mutations, correspond to WHO grade IV and should be referred to as diffuse astrocytic glioma, IDH-wildtype, with molecular features of glioblastoma, WHO grade IV.)

300

What is the MOST important component of treatment for primary CNS lymphoma? A. High-dose systemic methotrexate B. Cycloplosphamide, doxorubicin, vinctristine and prednisone (CHOP) C. Whole brain RT D. Rituximab

High-dose systemic methotrexate

400

What is the TMN classification in a patient that presents with a 5 cm, grade 3 breast cancer with matted axillary lymph nodes, received neoadjuvant chemotherapy, and had a pCR at time of MRM?

cT2N2aM0, ypT0N0

400

For which brachytherapy APBI technique do randomized trial data support equivalent rates of LR with whole breast RT?

Multi-catheter interstitial- Hungarian trial and the larger GEC-ESTRO trial

400

What is the approximate local control rate at 1 year for a 2 cm hepatocellular carcinoma treated with SBRT to BED > 100 Gy? A. 85 - 100% B. 70 - 84% C. 55 - 69% D. 40 - 54%

85 - 100%

400

In a randomized phase III trial, the addition of which agent to standard temozolomide chemoRT and adjuvant temozolomide for GBM with methylated MGMT promoter improved OS? A. Procarbazine B. Lomustine C. Bevacizumab D. Vincristine

Lomustine- Median overall survival was improved from 31·4 months  to 48·1 months

400

What factor is associated with better prognosis in primary CNS lymphoma? A. Age younger than 30 years B. Elevated LDH level C. Involvement of cerebellum D. Performance status 0 or 1

Performance status 0 or 1

500

hat heart and lung dose constraints are acceptable for PMRT planning? A. Mean heart dose of 4 Gy and ipsilateral lung V20 of 35% B. Mean heart dose of 6 Gy and total lung V20 of 35% C. Mean heart dose of 4 Gy and total lung V30 of 35% D. Mean heart dose of 6 Gy and ipsilateral lung V30 of 35%

Mean heart dose of 4 Gy and ipsilateral lung V20 of 35%

500

For a 54 year-old woman with newly diagnosed metastatic ER- PR- HER2+ breast cancer and an ECOG of 0, what is the preferred first-line systemic therapy?

Trastuzumab, pertuzumab, and docetaxel, per cleopatra study 8-year overall survival rate from 23%  to 37%by adding pertuzumab

500

What is the MINIMUM volume of uninvolved liver that must be spared from receiving a critical dose threshold in liver SBRT? A. 400 cc B. 700 cc C. 900 cc D. 1500 cc

700 cc

500

At what level does the thecal sac end in adults?

S1/S2- best seen on sagittal T2 MRI

500

In the WHO 2016 classification of brain tumors, which molecular feature is required for the diagnosis of an oligodendroglioma? A. IDH wild type B. Combined 1p/19q loss C. TERT promoter mutation D. EGFR amplification

Combined 1p/19q loss.  Oligo needs both requires the presence of both an isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH) mutation and combined 1p/19q loss.