Eyes and Ears
TB
Restrictive Lung Disease
Pneumonia
Nose and Throat
100

This is the primary goal of glaucoma treatment.

What is to reduce intraocular pressure (IOP) and prevent optic nerve damage?

100

Name one benefit of DOT beyond ensuring medication adherence.

What is preventing drug resistance / ensuring treatment completion / supporting patient education and engagement?

100

Why should LABAs never be used alone in asthma treatment?

What is increased risk of severe asthma attacks or death?

100

These antibiotics are commonly used as first-line treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in a healthy adult due to their effectiveness against Streptococcus pneumoniae.

What are Azithromycin, amoxicillin, and doxycycline 

100

This is the first-line antibiotic for bacterial sinusitis.

What is amoxicillin?

200

This class of glaucoma medication reduces IOP but may cause bradycardia if combined with oral beta blockers.

What are beta blockers (e.g., betaxolol drops)?

200

This is the most common side effect of rifampin and can be alarming to patients.

What is red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears?

200

These are examples of short-acting beta-2 agonists that provide relief for 4–6 hours.

What are Albuterol, Terbutaline, and Levalbuterol?

200

This antibiotic covers both typical and atypical pathogens in pneumonia and is used in patients with comorbidities or immunosuppression

what is Levofloxacin 

200

These antibiotics are considered first-line for treating Group A Beta-Hemolytic Strep (GABHS) infections

What are Penicillin V Potassium & Amoxicillin

300

This first-line otic solution for otitis externa includes both ciprofloxacin and a steroid.

What is Cipro HC?

300

This RIPE medication inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, blocking RNA synthesis in TB bacteria

What is Rifampin?

300

This is a key reason why Theophylline requires close monitoring.

What is a narrow therapeutic range and risk of toxicity?

300

This antiviral medication is used in pneumonia cases caused by influenza virus to reduce symptom duration and prevent complications.

What is oseltamivir?

300

This ingredient found in lozenges or sprays numbs the throat but can pose a rare risk of methemoglobinemia.

What is benzocaine or phenol?

400

This ointment is given to newborns within 1 hour of birth to prevent eye infections from gonorrhea or chlamydia.  

What is erythromycin ointment?  

400

This enzyme system is induced by rifampin, leading to multiple drug interactions.

What is cytochrome P450 (CYP2C19)?

400

These side effects, including dry mouth and constipation, are common with muscarinic agents.

What are anticholinergic side effects?

400

For maximum effectiveness, oseltamivir should ideally be started within this time frame from the onset of influenza symptoms to reduce the duration and severity of illness.

What is within 48 hours?

400

You should avoid systemic decongestants if you have one of these two conditions.

What are severe high blood pressure or heart disease?

500

If there is no improvement in symptoms of acute Otitis Media after 48–72 hours of treatment, you should switch to one of these antibiotics.

What is amoxicillin/clavulanate or ceftriaxone?

500

This vitamin should be co-administered with INH to prevent peripheral neuropathy.

What is vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?

500

If a patient develops thrush from an inhaled corticosteroid, this determines the treatment type.

What are the patient’s age, development, and preference?

500

Both moxifloxacin and azithromycin carry a risk of this serious side effect

What is QT interval prolongation?

500

Systemic decongestants should not be taken with this type of antidepressant.

What are MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors)?