All About the Labs
Take My Breath Away
Assessment 101
Move to the Beat
Wild Card
100

What labs would you check for your patient in stable VT?

K and Mg
100

Interpret the following ABG:

pH 7.55/ CO2 22/ PaO2 83/ HCO3 24

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis 

100

A 58 yo is admitted with septic shock. The shock is resolved and off pressors. He becomes confused and tries to get OOB. What type of screening should you assess?

CAM-ICU to assess for delirium
100

Name a medication commonly given in the ICU for delirium that can cause a prolonged QT interval.


Anti-psychotics- Haldol, seroquel, risperidone

Antiemetics- Zofran, reglan

100

Which of the following complications should be aggressively treated to prevent worsening of cerebral edema and infarct expansion after an acute ischemic stroke?

A. Hypernatremia

B. Fever

C. Hypokalemia

D. Hypoglycemia

B. Fever

Fever, hyponatremia, and hyperglycemia have all been associated with worsening infarcts and neurological outcomes

200

A pt was transfused 4 units of PRBC. What electrolyte do you anticipate replacing?

Calcium

200

A pt admitted with pulmonary contusions and ARDS is on the vent and the settings are APVCMV - Rate 12/Vt 350/PEEP 10/FiO2 60%. 

ABG is pH 7.20/ CO2 65/ PaO2 80/ HCO3 22. 

What vent changes would you anticipate?

Increase respiratory rate

200

What physical assessment findings would be expected in the setting of thrombocytopenia?

Petechiae 

200

How many joules do you use for synchronized cardioversion?

200

200

What medication and dose is given for a prolonged seizure under ESO protocol?

Ativan 2mg IVP, repeat x1 in 3-5min

300

What two labs/ specimens would you draw to assess patient detorioration?

ABG and lactic acid

300

68 yo male with COPD has SOB, interpret his ABG results:

pH 7.22/ PaCO2 74/ PaO2 103/ HCO3 30



Partially compensated respiratory acidosis 

300

A pt is suspected of having a R-sided tension pneumothorax. What are 2 assessment findings you would expect?

Tracheal deviation to the left and absent breath sounds over the pneumothorax

300

What medications do we give for symptomatic bradycardia?

Atropine 1mg q3-5min for max of 3mg

Dopamine gtt 400mg/ 250ml at 5mcg/kg/minute to max of 20

Epinephrine gtt 2mg/ 250ml at 2mcg/ minute to max of 10

300

Which finding distinguishes neurogenic shock from other forms of distributive shock?

A. BP 80/45 (MAP 57)

B. HR 45

C. SVR 1400

D. CO 3 L/min

B. HR 45

400
What labs would you draw under the Chest Pain ESO?
Troponin HS, CBC, BMP, PT/INR, PTT
400

Name 3 contraindications to using a BiPAP.

Respiratory Arrest

Inability to maintain a patent airway or clear secretions

Risk for aspiration of gastric contents (nausea, vomiting, or bowel obstruction)

Pre-existing pneumothorax without chest tube or pneumomediastinum

Epistaxis

Recent facial, oral or skull surgery or trauma

Encephalopathy/altered mental status

Hypotension due to suspected intravascular volume depletion

Unable to tolerate NIV (BiPap)

400

Name the 3 categories of the Glasgow Coma Scale.

Motor response, verbal response, eye opening

400

Pt's invasive hemodynamics are: CVP 6, PAD 10, CO 5, CI 2.7, SVR 1700. What medication would bring down the abnormal value into the desired range?

A. Lasix

B. Dobutamine

C. Lidocaine

D. Nicardipine

D. Nicardipine

400

What is the NICOM used for?

Assessing fluid responsiveness

500
At what level would you typically replace ionized Ca?

iCal <1.1

500

A patient with PNA has been sustaining a respiratory rate of 25-30 per min and SpO2 96% on BIPAP. The nurse should notify the provider for probable intubation when which of the following is observed?

A. Nasal flaring

B. RR 20 with shallow breathing and decreased LOC

C. Increased accessory muscle use

D. SaO2 91%

B. RR 20 with shallow breathing and decreased LOC

In a patient with respiratory distress, a sudden decrease in RR indicates exhaustion

500

What trends in vital signs would be expected in a patient experiencing herniation and Cushing's triad?

Wide pulse pressure, bradycardia, increased systolic pressure

500

A pt with severe mitral insufficiency is prone to which dysrhythmias?

Atrial fibrillation

500

Name 4 SIRS criteria.

1. SBP < 90, MAP < 65, or SBP drop > 40

2. Lactate > 2

3. Creatinine > 2.0 or urinary output (UOP) < 0.5 mL/kg/hr

4. T. Bili > 2

5. Platelet < 100,000

6. INR > 1.5, aPTT > 60 sec

7. New onset respiratory failure requiring BIPAP or intubation

8. New mental status changes