Substance Use Disorder
Depression
Bipolar
Anxiety Disorders
Eating Disorders
100

A client arrives in the emergency department after being found difficult to arouse. The nurse notes a respiratory rate of 7/min, oxygen saturation of 86%, pinpoint pupils, and cool skin. Which cue is most important for the nurse to recognize?

  • A. The client may be experiencing opioid toxicity.
  • B. The client is beginning alcohol withdrawal.
  • C. The client is experiencing stimulant intoxication.
  • D. The client is demonstrating benzodiazepine withdrawal.

A. Respiratory depression with miosis strongly supports opioid toxicity. Airway and breathing can deteriorate rapidly, making this cue more urgent than the other possibilities.

100

A client admitted for major depression says, “There is no point in trying anymore.” Which hypothesis should the nurse address first?

  • A. Risk for suicide
  • B. Social isolation
  • C. Disturbed sleep pattern
  • D. Chronic low self-esteem

A

Hopelessness is strongly associated with suicide risk. The nurse must assess suicidal thoughts, plan, intent, access to means, and protective factors before addressing lower-priority concerns.

100

A client has elevated mood, increased goal-directed activity, and decreased sleep for 5 days. Coworkers notice the change, but the client continues working and has no psychosis or marked impairment. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  • A. Manic episode
  • B. Hypomanic episode
  • C. Cyclothymic disorder
  • D. Major depressive episode

B

Hypomania lasts at least 4 days, is observable, and represents a change from baseline without marked impairment, hospitalization, or psychosis. Those latter features would indicate mania.

100

A client is hyperventilating during a panic attack. Which action should the nurse take first?

  • A. Leave the client alone to decrease embarrassment.
  • B. Stay with the client, use short statements, and coach slow breathing in a quieter area.
  • C. Ask the client to analyze the trigger in detail.
  • D. Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag.

B

Presence, calm communication, reduced stimulation, and coached breathing address severe anxiety safely. Detailed teaching is delayed until anxiety decreases; paper-bag rebreathing can cause hypoxia and is not recommended.

100

A client with bulimia nervosa reports weakness and palpitations after repeated vomiting. Which problem should the nurse prioritize?

  • A. Risk for dysrhythmia related to electrolyte loss
  • B. Chronic low self-esteem
  • C. Disturbed body image
  • D. Social isolation

A

Vomiting can cause hypokalemia and dysrhythmias. Possible cardiovascular instability takes priority over important but less immediate psychosocial problems.

200

Four hours after admission for alcohol withdrawal, a client becomes disoriented, reports seeing insects on the wall, and has a blood pressure of 178/104 mm Hg. Which problem should the nurse prioritize?

  • A. Disturbed sensory perception
  • B. Risk for injury from severe withdrawal
  • C. Ineffective coping related to alcohol use
  • D. Knowledge deficit about abstinence

B

Hallucinations, marked hypertension, and disorientation suggest severe withdrawal with risk for seizures, aspiration, dysrhythmias, and death. Immediate physiologic safety precedes longer-term psychosocial needs.

200

A client taking phenelzine reports a sudden severe occipital headache and palpitations after eating aged cheese. Which action is the priority?

  • A. Encourage rest and reassess in 1 hour.
  • B. Hold the medication and obtain urgent medical evaluation.
  • C. Give the next dose with food.
  • D. Teach the client to increase dietary sodium.

B

A severe headache and palpitations after tyramine exposure suggest hypertensive crisis, which requires immediate evaluation and treatment. Waiting may result in stroke or other end-organ injury.

200

A client taking lithium reports vomiting, coarse tremor, weakness, and unsteady gait after working outside in hot weather. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  • A. Expected transient effects
  • B. Lithium toxicity related to fluid and sodium loss
  • C. New hypomanic symptoms
  • D. Serotonin syndrome

B

Dehydration and sodium loss reduce lithium clearance and raise serum levels. GI symptoms, coarse tremor, weakness, and ataxia are toxicity cues requiring immediate action.

200

A veteran with PTSD reports nightmares, increasing alcohol use, social withdrawal, and the statement, “Everyone would be better off if I had not survived.” Which concern is the priority?

  • A. Disturbed sleep pattern
  • B. Risk for suicide
  • C. Social isolation
  • D. Ineffective role performance

B

Survivor guilt, substance use, withdrawal, and perceived burdensomeness increase suicide risk. Direct assessment of thoughts, plan, intent, means, and protective factors is the immediate priority.

200

The nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should be assessed first?

  • A. A client with binge-eating disorder who reports guilt after eating
  • B. A client with anorexia nervosa whose phosphate level fell after feedings began
  • C. A client with bulimia nervosa requesting information about CBT
  • D. A client who is anxious about being weighed

B

A falling phosphate level during refeeding is an early cue of potentially fatal refeeding syndrome. The other clients need therapeutic support but are not showing immediate physiologic instability.

300

A client prescribed disulfiram says, “I switched to alcohol-free mouthwash, so I am safe.” Which response by the nurse is best?

  • A. “That is correct; only beverages cause a reaction.”
  • B. “Avoid all products containing alcohol and check labels carefully.”
  • C. “Use the mouthwash only immediately before taking the medication.”
  • D. “Skip disulfiram on days when you use products containing alcohol.”

B

Even small or hidden sources of alcohol can cause an acetaldehyde reaction. The client should check foods, medicines, toiletries, and topical products rather than altering the prescription independently.

300

A client taking sertraline develops agitation, diaphoresis, diarrhea, hyperreflexia, and a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) after starting an over-the-counter cough medicine. Which complication should the nurse suspect?

  • A. Serotonin syndrome
  • B. Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome
  • C. Hypertensive crisis from tyramine
  • D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Mental-status change, autonomic instability, GI symptoms, fever, and neuromuscular hyperactivity after serotonergic drug exposure are characteristic of serotonin syndrome.

300

The nurse receives report on four clients taking lithium. Which client should be assessed first?

  • A. A client with mild thirst and fine tremor
  • B. A client with a level of 0.9 mEq/L and stable mood
  • C. A client with new slurred speech and ataxia
  • D. A client who gained 1 lb this month

C

Slurred speech and ataxia are neurologic toxicity findings and require immediate assessment. Mild thirst and fine tremor can occur at therapeutic levels; 0.9 mEq/L is within the commonly targeted acute therapeutic range.

300

A client reports feeling detached from the body and says the surroundings seem unreal, but reality testing remains intact. Which phenomenon should the nurse recognize?

  • A. Depersonalization/derealization
  • B. Auditory hallucination
  • C. Delirium
  • D. Grandiose delusion

A

Detachment from oneself or a sense that the environment is unreal, with intact reality testing, is characteristic of depersonalization/derealization.

300

A client with severe malnutrition begins nutritional rehabilitation. Two days later the client develops edema, weakness, and confusion, with a low phosphate level. Which complication should the nurse suspect?

  • A. Refeeding syndrome
  • B. Serotonin syndrome
  • C. Lithium toxicity
  • D. Alcohol withdrawal

A

Rapid electrolyte and fluid shifts after nutrition is restarted can produce hypophosphatemia, edema, neurologic changes, dysrhythmias, and cardiopulmonary failure. This is refeeding syndrome.

400

A hospitalized client reports drinking 8 to 10 alcoholic beverages daily and states the last drink was 10 hours ago. Which findings support emerging alcohol withdrawal? Select all that apply.

  • A. Fine hand tremors
  • B. Diaphoresis
  • C. Pulse 118/min
  • D. Pinpoint pupils
  • E. Increasing anxiety
  • F. Respiratory rate 8/min

A, B, C, E

Alcohol withdrawal reflects CNS hyperactivity and commonly causes tremor, sweating, tachycardia, anxiety, insomnia, hypertension, and nausea. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression suggest opioid toxicity.

400

A client with depression has taken an SSRI for 1 week. Which findings require immediate follow-up? Select all that apply.

  • A. The client gave away a valued guitar.
  • B. The client says, “My family would be better without me.”
  • C. The client reports mild nausea after the morning dose.
  • D. The client suddenly appears energetic after days of severe hopelessness.
  • E. The client asks when the medication should begin working.

A, B, D

Giving away possessions, perceived burdensomeness, and an unexpected energy increase can signal escalating suicide risk. Mild early nausea and asking about onset require teaching but are not immediate danger cues.

400

Which findings in a client with bipolar disorder support acute mania? Select all that apply.

  • A. Sleeping 2 hours nightly without fatigue
  • B. Pressured speech
  • C. Flight of ideas
  • D. Increased high-risk spending
  • E. Persistent psychomotor slowing
  • F. Marked occupational impairment

A, B, C, D, F

Decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, flight of ideas, risky behavior, and marked impairment are characteristic of mania. Psychomotor slowing is more consistent with depression.

400

The nurse plans care for a hospitalized client with severe OCD rituals. Which interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

  • A. Initially allow reasonable time for rituals.
  • B. Abruptly prevent all rituals on admission.
  • C. Establish a predictable routine.
  • D. Reinforce nonritualistic coping behaviors.
  • E. Collaborate on gradually reducing ritual time.
  • F. Shame the behavior to increase motivation.

A, C, D, E

Initial accommodation prevents overwhelming anxiety while trust develops; predictable structure, positive reinforcement, and gradual limits support treatment. Abrupt blocking and shaming are nontherapeutic.

400

A client with suspected anorexia nervosa is assessed. Which findings require prompt follow-up? Select all that apply.

  • A. Heart rate 42/min
  • B. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
  • C. Reports intense fear of weight gain
  • D. Temperature 35.6°C (96.1°F)
  • E. Requests vegetarian meal options
  • F. Orthostatic dizziness

A, B, C, D, F

Bradycardia, hypokalemia, hypothermia, orthostasis, and intense fear of weight gain are clinically significant cues. A dietary preference alone is not evidence of instability.

500

A client with severe alcohol use disorder is admitted for medically supervised withdrawal. Which interventions should the nurse anticipate including in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

  • A. Institute seizure precautions.
  • B. Monitor withdrawal severity with a standardized scale.
  • C. Provide a low-stimulation environment.
  • D. Encourage the client to stop all sedating medications abruptly.
  • E. Administer prescribed benzodiazepines based on symptoms.
  • F. Delay thiamine until neurologic symptoms appear.

A, B, C, E

Seizure precautions, structured assessment, reduced stimulation, and symptom-triggered medication promote safe withdrawal. Abrupt cessation of dependent sedatives can be dangerous, and thiamine should not be delayed in a client at risk for deficiency.

500

The nurse is planning care for a client with severe depression, psychomotor slowing, and minimal food intake. Which interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

  • A. Offer small, nutrient-dense foods and fluids.
  • B. Schedule demanding group activities early in the day.
  • C. Break self-care tasks into simple steps.
  • D. Make decisions for the client indefinitely.
  • E. Remain with the client during periods of intense hopelessness.
  • F. Provide specific recognition for completed activities.

A, C, E, F

Small meals, simple directions, supportive presence, and specific reinforcement address physiologic needs, safety, and impaired motivation. Activities should match energy level, and autonomy should be restored progressively.

500

Which discharge instructions are appropriate for a client taking lithium? Select all that apply.

  • A. Maintain a consistent sodium intake.
  • B. Drink adequate fluids each day.
  • C. Contact the prescriber for vomiting, diarrhea, fever, or heavy sweating.
  • D. Double the dose after a missed dose.
  • E. Keep laboratory appointments for lithium and renal/thyroid monitoring.
  • F. Begin a low-sodium diet to prevent edema.

A, B, C, E

Stable sodium and hydration help maintain a safe lithium level. Illness and sweating may cause dehydration, and ongoing serum, renal, and thyroid monitoring is essential. Doses should not be doubled and sodium should not be abruptly restricted.

500

A client repeatedly seeks emergency care for distressing physical symptoms despite negative evaluations. The client is highly anxious and spends hours researching diseases. Which approach is most appropriate?

  • A. Assume the symptoms are fabricated.
  • B. Validate the distress while scheduling consistent follow-up and shifting focus toward feelings and function.
  • C. Confront the client that nothing is medically wrong.
  • D. Order a new diagnostic workup at every visit to provide reassurance.

B

Somatic symptoms and distress are real to the client. A consistent, matter-of-fact approach limits unnecessary testing while supporting emotional expression and functional goals.

500

Which interventions are appropriate for a client beginning inpatient treatment for an eating disorder? Select all that apply.

  • A. Establish consistent meal expectations among staff.
  • B. Monitor intake, weight trends, vital signs, and electrolytes.
  • C. Engage in power struggles when the client refuses food.
  • D. Observe for purging or excessive exercise.
  • E. Collaborate with the client and dietitian on a structured plan.
  • F. Praise the client's appearance after each weight gain.

A, B, D, E

Consistency, objective monitoring, observation for compensatory behavior, and collaborative multidisciplinary planning promote safety and trust. Power struggles and appearance-focused praise can reinforce weight preoccupation.