LMPT Jeopardy: Exam 4

Officer Resilience

100

Sometimes referred to as "mental toughness", this term is the ability to bounce back from challenges and stress. 

Bonus 100: ______ is defined as "The non-specific response of the body to any demand".

Resilience 

Remember the egg vs. tennis ball analogy.

Bonus: Stress

200

The "Stress Response" is a biological response in which our mind and body instinctively prepares to face danger. It can be summarized by these three "F"s.

Fight

Flight

Freeze 

300

Real stress is a process: 

1) Alarm (cause)

2) Stress Response (reaction: fight/flight/freeze)

3) Relaxation Response (rest and recovery)

If the Relaxation Response is not reached, a chemical imbalance can cause harm to the body. 

LEO's may enter into a state of constant aroused senses. This inability to go "off-duty" prohibits the Relaxation Response. What term describes this state of constant aroused senses?

Hyper-vigilance 

400

A model used to breakdown the stress response into separate parts is the "ABC" model:

A) Activating event; source of stress

B) Belief system (how one evaluates the event as positive, negative or neutral)

C) Consequences 

Which of the "ABC"s is usually most effective at coping with stress? 

Belief system

By adjusting one's belief and perspective on the source of stress (Activating event) we can limit the power that the event has over our life. 

500

In order to promote the "Relaxation Response" to stress, a person may incorporate these immediate, short-term reliefs. 

Name one.

Deep breathing (tactical breathing) 

Quieting response (find a quiet location, close eyes)

Meditation

Humor

600

The ACT model guides us when dealing with a co-worker who is overwhelmed with stress and may pose a threat to themselves and/or others.

A: Ask "are you thinking of killing yourself"

C: Care (listen with compassion and concern)

T: 

Take Action: refer to competent, professional resources

Critical Incident Stress

100

A "critical incident" and a "crisis" are both "events that are grave, crucial, momentous, and sometimes life threatening". 

THIS is the distinction between the two.

A "critical incident" may be predictable. (Sturgis Motorcycle Rally)

A "crisis" is unpredictable, sudden and arbitrary. (Meteorite crashes through Visitor Center)

200

Critical Incident: an event requiring an extraordinary degree of _________ by the individual who experiences the event. 

Adaptation 

300

This is the part of the brain that regulates homeostasis, emotions and feelings of pain and pleasure. 

Hypothalamus 

400

Officer Valladarez was assaulted by a his AO. During that critical incident Valladarez experienced a sensation of slow motion.

These are other physiological responses that occur during a critical incident. 

List 2

Time Distortion 

Slow Motion

Fast Motion

Auditory Distortion (Auditory Exclusion) 

Diminished Sound

Intensified Sound

Visual Distortion

Tunnel Vision

Heightened sense of detail

500

Officer Hanks is involved in an on-duty shooting. He later isolates himself from his peers as he feels like no one cares or understands what he is going through.

Isolation is a psychological effects of a delayed critical incident response (post-response). 

List 1 other psychological effect.

Denial

Isolation

Preoccupation with the event

Heightened sensitivity to others' reactions

600

The way one views or interprets events, not the events themselves, is the true source of most stress.

"C_________  Restructuring" means changing a perception from a negative interpretation to a neutral or positive one, thus making it less stressful (reappraisal, relabeling, reframing). 

Cognitive Restructuring 

700

Officer Oles routinely patrols his area and imagines a variety of situations that may occur during his shift. He thinks about how he would respond to emergencies.

When Oles responds to a critical incident, he will be more mentally prepared because of this strategy/practice described above. 

Mental rehearsal ("if-then" or "when-then" thinking)

Improvised Explosive Devices

100

"The count shall be three"

List the three primary effects of an explosion:

1) Thermal Effect

2) B______  __________ Effect

3) F____________ Effect

Thermal Effect

Blast Pressure Effect

Fragmentation Effect

200

2-Part:

This is the least damaging effect of an explosion.

This is the most powerful and damaging effect of an explosion.

Thermal Effect: insignificant part of an explosion (unless combined with highly combustible materials such as propane tank)

Blast Pressure Effect: Extremely hot, dense high pressure gases expand out from point of detonation. 

The blast pressure wave can be confined and reflected depending on surrounding environment (tunnels, buildings, walls, corridors, trenches) and become amplified. 

300

Primary Blast Injury is caused directly by the blast pressure wave upon the body.

This is a Secondary Blast Injury.

Bonus 100: Which of the above two types of blast injuries are the most common cause of death in an explosion? 

Injury caused by propelled fragmentation.

Primary fragmentation is material ejected from the actual device (shrapnel from grenade), while secondary fragmentation are objects propelled from around the detonation (rocks, building material, bones).

Bonus: Secondary blast injuries (broken glass is the most common secondary blast injury)

400

Four components of an IED:

P

I

E

S

Power source

Initiator 

Explosive 

Switch

500

2-Part:

Black powder and smokeless powder are the most commonly used explosives for IED's in U.S. What type of explosives are they?

This is the most common IED's in U.S.

Low Explosives: produces longer lasting thermal effect with lower temperatures. When unconfined, responds to initiation by deflagration or burning.

Pipe Bombs

600

Two-part: Regarding Vehicle-Borne IED's, the most common type of vehicle used is this, and this is commonly where the explosive load is stored.

Bonus 100: Approx. 70% of VBIED incidents involve explosive loads of 20-___ pounds.

Bonus 200: This type of explosive material is most commonly used in VBIED's.

Sedan, trunk.

Bonus 100: 20-200 pounds

Bonus 200: Homemade ammonium nitrate-based and urea nitrate-based explosives 

700

When searching a building for an IED, an axiom to remember is: "Outside to inside, bottom to top, public to private". 

Common interior public areas where an IED may be concealed include:

1) Lobbies 

2) E

3) R

4) S

Elevators

Restrooms

Stairwells

800

When considering evacuation perimeters, the "Mandatory Evacuation Distance" relates to "Blast zone", while the "Preferred Evacuation Distance" relates to "Fragmentation zone". 

List 2 of the 3 preferred evacuation distances (ft):

1) Small IED: 

2) Large IED:

3) Sedan VBIED: 

Small IED: 1,200 feet

Large IED: 1,850 feet

Sedan VBIED: 1,900 feet

Basic Collision Investigation

100

The objectives of traffic collision investigation is 1) protection of life and property, 2) collection/preservation of evidence, 3) determination of cause. 

The process of collision reduction/prevention involves a comprehensive effort of three disciplines known as the 3 E's (name two).

Ed________

En__________

En__________

Education

Engineering

Enforcement

200

Properly order the sequence of events for an LEO arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle collision:

-Determine if injuries are present and EMS is needed

-Identify drivers and witnesses. Run DL's and vehicle plates

-Survey scene for potential dangers and make safe

Bonus 100: What training program was authorized by Congress to provide training to first responders involved in managing vehicle collision scenes?

-Survey scene for potential dangers and make safe

-Determine if injuries are present and EMS is needed

-Identify drivers and witnesses. Run DL's and vehicle plates

Bonus: National Traffic Incident Management (TIM) Responder Training Program.

300

These are the three areas an investigation of a collision scene will focus on (List one):

1) 

2)

3) The road or driving environment

Bonus 100: What is the most common primary contributing factor in the occurrence of vehicle collisions?  

1) Driver(s) and witnesses involved

2) The vehicle(s) involved

Bonus: The Driver!

400

THIS is the one of, if not the most important, pieces of evidence in determining how and why a collision occurred.

Skid mark evidence: involved parties cannot dispute skid marks, nor can they easily alter the evidence. 

500

This type of skid marks are probably the most important to the investigator because they identify when the driver decided something was wrong and utilized an evasive maneuver. (ghost)

Bonus 100: This is "a pointed area of land at the fork created by the convergence of two roads at a sharp angle and bounded by the edges of the roads."

Impending Skid Marks

Bonus: Gore 

600

This will be used/referenced by the investigator to prepare a Crash Scene Diagram and Crash Scene Narrative.

Field Sketch

700

TIM classifies traffic incidents by anticipated duration of processing the scene. What are the time ranges? Correctly answer two.

Minor: <__ Minutes

Intermediate: __ Minutes to _ Hours

Major: > _ Hours

Minor: <30 Minutes

Intermediate: 30 Minutes to 2 Hours

Major: >2 Hours

800

Identify the red-shaded blocks as defined by TIM training. Correctly name 3.

Authentication of Identity Documents

100

The I-766 is issued to Non-immigrants (aliens). What is this card called?

Employment Authorization Card

200

The I-551 has commonly been referred to as the "Green Card". What is the actual name of this card and for how long is it valid?

Permanent Resident Alien Card

10 years 

300

This area of ALL passports contains a standardized format.

Machine Readable Zone (MRZ)

400

Where is Microprint typically found?

Name one area.

Border, background, graphics

500

Name the type of ink that will change color or vary optically as the angle of lighting changes.

Optically Variable Ink

600

Indications of a Trace-Over include differences in these two features.

Ink

Font

700

List two of the three most commonly altered parts of ID documents.

Photo

Expiration Date

DOB

800

PLEASE. Name 3 features to examine while authenticating ID's.  

P 

L 

E

A

S

E

Photograph 

Logo

Expiration Date

Age

Signature

Evidence of Alteration 

Courtroom Evidence

100

The Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE) apply to WHAT of the following:

Trial

Initial Appearance

Detention & Identity Hearings

Preliminary Hearings

Arraignments

Grand Jury Hearings

Sentencing Proceedings

Appeals

ONLY Trials

(exception of privileges...working knowledge only)

200

After the prosecution's (gov't) "case-in-chief", which is when the gov't calls witnesses and offers exhibits, the defense MAY present witnesses and evidence in support of the defendant. 

After the defense presents a case, this is the name a follow-up case by the gov't to challenge the evidence that the defense presented.

R______ Case

Rebuttal Case

ONLY used to refute evidence brought up by the defense.

300

This is the standard by which evidence will be admissible or not. 

"...any tendency to prove or disprove a fact that is in issue in the trial."

Relevant (Relevancy Standard)

400

Give an example of Direct evidence and Circumstantial evidence.

Direct: proves a fact without an inference/conclusion

Circumstantial: proves a fact indirectly through an inference, deduction, or a conclusion.

500

The government cannot used uncharged crimes or wrongdoing to prove that the defendant "did it before, so he must have done it again". This is called "propensity evidence" and is inadmissible. 

HOWEVER, some past acts (including bad/criminal acts) may be admissible if those acts help prove the charged crimes.

List two examples.

Motive

Intent 

Knowledge

Plan or preparation

Opportunity to commit the crime

Modus Operandi 

Identity of the perpetrator 

Impeachment 

600

Generally, a lay witness may only testify from personal knowledge. 

In matters of opinion, a lay witness may only testify about matters that are within the perception of an ordinary person, "from a process of reasoning familiar in everyday life". 

List 2 examples given by the courts:

H___________

V_____

E_________  ________

No requiring scientific or technical knowledge 

Handwriting 

Voice 

Emotional Condition

700

The defense will attempt to "i_________" the government's witness by attacking her credibility. The government may then be permitted to "r__________" the witness to restore credibility. 

Impeach 

Rehabilitate 

800

If a witness forgets a fact while testifying, he can "refresh" his memory by using anything that would remind him (sketches, photos, physical objects, reports, notes, and documents by other LEO's or Non-LEO's). 

Two-part:

Can the witness then read the item to the court (i.e. notes)?

Can the opposite party (defendant/prosecutor) request the item used to refresh the memory?  

No, once the witness' memory is refreshed, the witness will then testify from memory.

Yes, the item may be used for impeachment purposes.

5th Amendment

100

Verbalize the Miranda equation (full words): 

C + I (KC) = M

Custody + Interrogation (by Known Cops) = Miranda 

200

For a Miranda waiver to be valid, it must be given:

V________

K_________ 

I__________

Voluntary (free, deliberate choice)

Knowing 

Intelligent (for Knowing and Intelligent, the courts consider the suspect's age, education, understanding, familiarity with the criminal justice system, mental condition, drug impairment, language barrier)

300

Once the right to council is invoked, when may an officer re-engage?

Once the right to silence is invoked, when may an officer re-engage?

Council:

Defendant initiates 

Attorney present

After 14 days

Silence:

After 2-hour "cooling period"

400

SCENARIO 

500

SCENARIO

600

SCENARIO

700

SCENARIO

800

SCENARIO

Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) Spray

100

During this decade, Oleoresin Capsicum (O.C.) began to be manufactured for personal protection and animal defense and was soon utilized by law enforcement agencies. 

1980's

200

O.C. is derived from VARIOUS PEPPERS, and is actually a vegetable/plant product and is not a true chemical product. 

O.C. is classified as an ____________ agent. 

Inflammatory 

300

The standard hotness/pungency in O.C. for law enforcement purposes is 2 million Scoville Heat Units (SHU) or 1.25% capsacinoid contents. 

This is the effect of a higher percentage of capsacinoid contents in O.C.

Longer recovery time

400

The contents of a canister of O.C. are these three broad components.

Bonus 100: Which of the three components composes the majority of the contents?

-O.C. solution (usually 10%, of which 1.25% is composed of capsaicinoids)

-Solvents/Carriers

-Propellants (Nitrogen, Propane, Co2, Butante)

Bonus: Solvents/Carriers

500

2-part:

This is the shelf-life of O.C. and this is the frequency that the canister should be shaken to mix the contents.

3-5 years (aerosol will become ineffective) 

Monthly

600

3-part: 

This is the ideal distance for spraying a subject with O.C.

This is the recommended duration of the burst and the target zone.

4-8 feet

1-2 second burst directly into the face

700

The effects of O.C. will vary from person to person, but generally these three areas will be effected:

Eyes: Severe twitching and spasmodic contraction of the eyelids

Skin: Burning sensation on the skin and mucous membranes of nose and mouth

This is the third area affected.

Bonus 100: If symptoms persist longer than __ minutes, medical attention should be obtained.

Respiratory System: uncontrollable coughing, shortness of breath and gagging sensation

Bonus: 45 minutes 

800

Once O.C. is drawn, these are the three positions that the LEO will hold the unit.

High Ready: centerline of officer's body in a high profile position.

Low Ready: concealed behind officer's leg.

Loaded Position: unit is extended and aimed in toward subject and the officer's opposite hand is placed in front of his/her face to strike or redirect subject if they close distance. 

Wound Analysis

100

This is the definition of Entomology.

The scientific study of insect evidence to aid a legal investigation. 

200

This is the definition of Hypostasis (also called livor mortis or postmortem lividity).

Pooling of blood as it accumulates at the lowest parts of the body, being pulled down by gravity; is a method of determining the position of the body at/after death. 

300

Locard's Exchange Principle teaches this. 

Every contact leaves a trace.  A theory stating that anyone who enters an environment will leave something behind and/or take something away.

("leave no trace" is a crock) 

400

Also referred to as "tattooing", this term describes the disposition of minute burn marks left by gunpowder as it leaves the gun. Often visible on close range gunshot wounds.

Stippling 

500

This type of injury accounts for 99% of criminal injuries.

Blunt Force Trauma 

600

"Hilt Mark" describes this type of injury.

Bruising appearance at point of stabbing when enough force applied for complete penetration of the tool to the base of the blade is accomplished.

700

Officer Dillon is dispatched to Madison Campground for a report of this, the second most common cause of homicidal death in the U.S. 

Sharp force injuries (stabbings) 

800

What role do Langer's Lines/Lines of Cleavage play in the effect of a cutting injury?

Bonus 100: The coloring of bruising is a good indicator of time-since-injury. Order these bruising colors chronologically (first to last): 

Blue

Red 

Purple

Langer's Lines are areas of tension of the tissue created by underlying collagen structures. 

Wounds produced parallel to the lines will be apt to take the form of narrow slits, where perpendicular injuries will gape because they are pulled by tension.