Human Growth and Development/ Core Theories
Human development is defined as the sequence of developmental changes over the human lifespan that allow the individual complex adaptation to the environment in order to function within society. This sequence encompasses which three types of developmental changes?
A. Biophysical, emotional, and social
B. Physical, cognitive, and environmental
C. Biophysical, psychosocial, and cognitive
D. Mental, physical, and emotional
C Rationale: Human development is defined as the sequence of biophysical, psychosocial, and cognitive developmental changes over the human lifespan
A nurse is screening a 2-year-old child for developmental delays. Which finding would be considered a warning sign at this age?
A. Not walking
B. Not speaking 15 words
C. Does not use two-word sentences
D. Cannot copy a circle
C Rationale: A warning sign for developmental delay by 2 years is if the child does not use two-word sentences. (Not walking and not speaking 15 words are warning signs by 18 months, and difficulty copying a circle is a warning sign by 3 years).
The developmental stage associated with Generativity v. Stagnation, which corresponds to the virtue of Care, typically occurs during which period of adulthood?
A. Newborn
B. Teenager
C. Early 20s
D. Early 30s
D Rationale: The Erikson stage of Generativity v. Stagnation (Care) is associated with the Early 30s
What is the absolute priority intervention when managing clients with Major Depressive Disorder or bipolar disorder?
A. Monitoring for medication side effects
B. Teaching assertive behavior
C. Safety and suicide prevention
D. Minimizing maladaptive dependence
Answer: C Rationale: Safety is always the priority intervention for treatments for Mood disorders, specifically suicide prevention
The classic clinical manifestation of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) that involves a distinctive rash across the cheeks and nose is known as a:
A. Discoid rash
B. Serositis
C. Butterfly rash (Malar)
D. Ulcer on the mucosa
C Rationale: Clinical manifestations of SLE can include a Butterfly rash (Malar) across the cheeks and nose
According to established development patterns, how do gross motor skills develop?
A. In a proximodistal fashion (from center to periphery)
B. In a cephalocaudal direction (from head downward)
C. From complex skills to simple skills
D. Simultaneously with fine motor skills
B Rationale: Gross motor skills develop in a cephalocaudal direction (from head to “tail” or from head downward)
To meet the diagnostic criteria for Attention-Deficit Hyperactive Disorder (ADHD) based on DSM-5, symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, or impulsivity must have had their onset before what age?
A. Age 5
B. Age 7
C. Age 12
D. Age 18
Answer: C Rationale: ADHD diagnosis requires that symptoms have their onset before age 12 (though sometimes noted before age 7) and must be present for at least 6 months
which statement reflects an accurate understanding of cognitive ability in the older adult, according to the sources?
A. Older adults cannot learn new things.
B. Mental deterioration is expected in most older adults.
C. Cognitive ability does not change appreciably, though processing may take longer.
D. Cognitive function declines rapidly after age 65.
C Rationale: Cognitive ability in the older adult does not change appreciably, although they may take longer to respond and react. The idea that older adults cannot learn new things or that mental deterioration occurs is listed as a common myth
A client with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is started on an SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor). The nurse should inform the client that they might begin noticing effects in 2–4 weeks, but the maximum therapeutic levels may take how long to reach?
A. 1 week
B. Up to 5 weeks
C. 6 months
D. Up to 12 months
B Rationale: SSRIs usually take 2–4 weeks to begin noticing effects, and may take up to 5 weeks to reach maximum therapeutic levels. Maximal responses to antidepressant therapy may not be seen until 12 weeks
Which laboratory test is positive in more than 95% of patients with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) and is highly specific for supporting the diagnosis?
A. Decreased C3 and C4 complement proteins
B. Elevated BUN and creatinine
C. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
D. Anemia on CBC
C Rationale: The ANA (Antinuclear antibody) test is positive in more than 95% of patients with SLE, indicating exceptional specificity.
According to Erik Erikson’s 8 Stages of Development, which stage conflict is associated with the virtue of "Will" and occurs during the toddler age (1–3)?
A. Trust v. Mistrust
B. Initiative v. Guilt
C. Autonomy v. Doubt/Shame
D. Industry v. Inferiority
C Rationale: The toddler age group (1–3) corresponds to the stage of Autonomy v. Doubt/Shame, which yields the virtue of Will
Which characteristic is a clinical manifestation of impaired social interaction in a child with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
A. Frequently interrupts others
B. Does not startle at loud noises
C. May treat others as if they are objects
D. Easily engages in interactive games
C Rationale: A child with ASD may treat others as if they are objects and prefers to spend time alone rather than with others
Hormonal Therapy (HT) for menopause is approved for which specific therapeutic goals?
A. Preventing weight gain and improving mood
B. Relief of vasomotor symptoms and prevention of osteoporosis
C. Decreasing abdominal fat and improving sleep
D. Relieving breast tenderness and increasing collagen levels
Answer: B Rationale: Hormonal Therapy (HT) is approved for relief of vasomotor symptoms and prevention of osteoporosis
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) are typically reserved for clients who do not respond to SSRIs or Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) because of which requirement?
A. They require strict fluid balance and sodium monitoring.
B. They are associated with a high incidence of sexual side effects.
C. They require the avoidance of tyramine-containing foods.
D. They must be taken under anesthesia.
Answer: C Rationale: MAOIs are reserved for clients who do not respond to first-line agents because they have multiple drug and food interactions, specifically requiring clients to avoid foods with tyramine
When teaching a young female patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) about her medication regimen, which nonbiologic DMARD (Disease-modifying antirheumatic drug) must the nurse emphasize is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Prednisone
B. Ibuprofen
C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
D. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
Answer: C Rationale: Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) is a nonbiologic DMARD used for RA that CAN NOT BE TAKEN DURING PREGNANCY
Which of the following is listed as one of the four stages in Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development?
A. Genital stage
B. Concrete operational
C. Identity v. Confusion
D. Phallic stage
B Rationale: Piaget’s 4 Stages include Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete operational, and Formal operational
A patient is prescribed a stimulant medication for ADHD. The mechanism of action (MOA) for this class of drugs involves:
A. Inhibiting monoamine oxidase.
B. Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibition.
C. Blocking the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine.
D. Increasing the availability of serotonin in the synapse
C Rationale: Stimulants used for ADHD (such as Adderall or Ritalin) have a mechanism of action that blocks the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine
Which diagnostic standard is considered the "Gold standard" for identifying osteoporosis?
A. Bone Mass Density (BMD) measurement alone
B. A T score of -1 or higher
C. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA or DEXA)
D. Serum calcium and Vitamin D levels
C Rationale: The Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA or DEXA) is the Gold standard for identifying osteoporosis, as it calculates the mineral content of the bone.
Which of the following is identified as a major risk factor for developing Postpartum Depression?
A. Physical discomfort and fatigue following birth
B. Emotional letdown following birth
C. Anxiety about caring for the newborn
D. History of postpartum depression or bipolar disorder
D Rationale: Risk factors for Postpartum Depression include primiparity, ambivalence about pregnancy, lack of social support, lack of supportive relations with a partner, dissatisfaction with herself, and a history of postpartum depression or bipolar disorder. (The other choices are risk factors for Postpartum Blues, which usually resolves within 2 weeks.)
In the treatment of Tuberculosis (TB), what is the primary purpose of Directly Observed Therapy (DOT)?
A. To monitor for signs of liver function impairment.
B. To ensure adherence to the drug regimen by watching the patient swallow the drugs.
C. To prevent the patient from experiencing environmental stress.
D. To screen close household contacts for latent TB infection.
B Rationale: Directly observed therapy (DOT) is a TB management strategy that is preferred to ensure adherence to the treatment plan, as it requires watching the patient swallow drugs
Which statement accurately describes a key principle of Human Growth and Development?
A. Growth continues throughout the lifespan, but development ceases after age 20.
B. Development starts complex and progresses to simple.
C. All humans follow the same predictable pattern of growth.
D. Development occurs independently of psychosocial changes.
C Rationale: All humans follow the same predictable pattern of growth. Growth and development are also continuous and orderly, and development starts simple and progresses to more complex
Which physical characteristic is commonly associated with Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)?
A. Large head (Macrocephaly)
B. Upward slanting eyes
C. High muscle tone (Hypertonia)
D. Normal neck length
B Rationale: Common physical features of Down Syndrome include a flattened facial profile, upward slanting eyes, small head and ears, short neck, and poor muscle tone (hypotonia)
A nurse should exercise caution or avoid administering bisphosphonates (e.g., Fosamax) for osteoporosis treatment in a patient with which co-morbid condition?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Mild chronic kidney disease (CrCl > 30 mL/min)
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Sedentary lifestyle
C Rationale: Patients with Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) should not take bisphosphonates, as these drugs can further lower calcium levels. Bisphosphonates should also be avoided in individuals with severe kidney problems (creatinine clearance <30 mL/min)
Which medication is most appropriate for the treatment of mania associated with bipolar disorder?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Citalopram
C. Lithium
D. Venlafaxine
C Rationale: Lithium is identified as the most appropriate drug for the treatment of mania associated with bipolar disorder
When administering Epinephrine during an acute anaphylactic reaction, the nurse understands that its primary action is achieved because it acts as a(n):
A. Volume expander to treat hypotension.
B. Agent that blocks histamine from attaching to receptor cells.
C. Alpha & beta-adrenergic agonist, causing rapid bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.
D. Corticosteroid that blocks leukotrienes and prostaglandins
C Rationale: Epinephrine is an Alpha & beta-adrenergic agonist that provides rapid production of bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.