Critical Care
Dysrhythmias
Respiratory Emergencies
Head and Neck Emergencies
Shock, MODS, Sepsis
100

A patient presents with stridor. Which of the following causes this?

A. Fluid in lungs

B. Partial obstruction

C. A pneumothorax

D. History of COPD

What is B

100

Which of the following patients would be diagnosed with POTS when going from sitting to standing?

A. HR of 81->58

B. BP of 120/79 ->90/68

C. HR of 76->118

D. BP of 103/78 -> 168/101

What is C.

p.719

POTS occurs when there is an increase in HR by 30bpm or more

100

Which of the following blood tests distinguishes ARDS from pulmonary edema?

A. BMP

B. ABG

C. CK

D. BNP

What is D

100

Which of the following are the symptoms of Cushing's Triad?

A. Bradycardia, Bradypnea, Hypertension

B. Tachycardia, Bradypnea, Hypotension

C. Bradycardia, Tachypnea, Hypotension

D. Tachycardia, Tachypnea, Hypertension

What is A.

p.2038

100

Which of the following acid-base imbalances occur during the progressive stage of shock?

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

What is C.

200

Which of the follow ventilator modes delivers a preset tidal volume at a preset rate but if the patient initiates a breath, the vent changes those settings to accommodate the patient?

A. SIMV

B. IMV

C. CPAP

D. A/C

What is D

Also called " Continuous mandatory ventillation" or "Assist Control"

A. mode of mechanical ventilation in which the ventilator allows the patient to breathe spontaneously while providing a preset number of breaths to ensure adequate ventilation; ventilated breaths are synchronized with spontaneous breathing

B. mode of mechanical ventilation that provides a combination of mechanically assisted breaths at a preset volume or pressure and rate and spontaneous breaths 

C. positive pressure applied throughout the respiratory cycle to a spontaneously breathing patient to promote alveolar and airway stability and increase functional residual capacity 

200

G.G. is a patient who presents to the ED with chest pain. Upon assessment, the patient's heart rate is 38bpm. What medication will the nurse administer?

A. Atropine

B. Adenosine

C. Furosemide

D. Heparin

What is A.

200

Why would a nurse perform a Train of Four test on a patient?

A. To determine if a patient is over sedated

B. To determine if patient can tolerate a high PEEP

C. To assess the patient's lung capacity

D. To determine if the patient has a DVT

What is A. 

p.612

200

Which of the following describes the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents?

A. Monro-Kellie hypothesis

B. SOFA

C. Battle's sign

D. Glasgow Coma Scale

What is A.


200

Which of the following symptoms indicate the patient is entering the irreversible stage of shock?

A. Decrease in blood pressure

B. Jaundice skin

C. Increase in heart rate

D. Respiratory alkalosis

What is B.

p.301

300

Which of the following are indications for intubation?

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. PaO2 >60

C. A compromised airway

D. PaCO2 >45

E. Difficulty breathing relieved by a nebulizer treatment

What is A,C,D

300

Which of the following tasks can an LPN do for a patient who is actively having a heart attack?

A. Assess patient's heart sounds

B. Discharge the patient next door to help the nurse

C. Administer a nitroglycerin drip

D. Change patient's IV fluid bag when empty

What is D

300

Which of the following is not a part of ICOUGH?

A. Incentive Spirometry

B. Understanding

C. Getting out of bed only once a day

D. HOB elevation

What is C.

Incentive Spirometry, Coughing/deep breathing, Oral care, Understanding (education), Getting out of bed at least 3x/day, HOB elevation

300

B.P. is a patient who has been diagnosed with a C5  spinal fracture. Which of the following will he be able to do independently? (Select all that apply)

A. Ambulate himself

B. Toilet himself

C. Dress and eat himself

D. Move his shoulders

E. Move his fingers

What is D

p.2052

300

When a patient is going into shock, which lab values will be expected during the early stages? (Select all that apply)

A. Increased BUN/Creatinine

B. Increased urine production

C. Decreased liver enzymes

D. Increased white blood cell counts

E. Decreased in blood pH levels

What is A,D

p.299

400

Which of the following is false about an arterial line?

A. IV Fluids can be run through it if it's the only IV access

B. The pressure bag should be set at 300

C. Do not take a manual blood pressure on the same side as the arterial line

D. The Allen test is used to confirm adequate circulation

What is A

400

Z.L. is an 82 year old man who presents with PEA. What will the nurse do first?

A. Perform CPR

B. Administer atropine

C. Attach patient to the defibrillator

D. Continue with head to toe assessment

What is A.


400

A patient has the following ABG. Which acid-base imbalance do they have? pH: 7.29, PaCO2:69, PaO2: 61, HCO3:20

A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

C. Compensated respiratory acidosis

D. Compensated metabolic acidosis

What is C.


400

A patient has sustained a spinal cord injury with ipsilateral paralysis. On one side, he has loss of touch, pressure, and vibration and on the other side has a loss of pain and temperature. Which of the following classifies the injury?

A. Central cord syndrome

B. Anterior cord syndrome

C. Lateral cord syndrome

D. Posterior cord syndrome

What is C.

"Brown-Sequard syndrome"

p. 2050

400

Which of the following organs shows signs of dysfunction first when a patient is diagnosed with MODS?

A. Heart

B. Kidneys

C. Lungs

D. Liver

What is C.

p.319

500

Which of the following is not a part of the VAP bundle?

A. Elevation of the head of the bed 30-45 degrees

B. Daily sedations to prevent patient from fighting the ventilator

C. Peptic ulcer prophylaxis

D. DVT prophylaxis

E. Oral care with chlorhexidine

What is B.

Daily sedation vacations to assess readiness to extubate the patient

p.530

500

Which of the following heart rhythms are shockable? (Select all that apply)

A. SVT

B. V-fib

C. V-tach with a pulse

D. V-tach without a pulse

E. ST elevations

F. Asystole

What is B,D

500

R.T. is a patient who has been sedated and paralyzed prior to being intubated. Which aspects of care are important for this patient? (Select all that apply)

A. Daily oral care

B. Daily eye care

C. Encourage the patient to ambulate three times a day

D. Do not disconnect patient from the ventilator until weened off paralytic

E. Monitor patient for skin breakdown each shift

A,B,D,E

p.612

500

F.G. is a 60 year old man with a history of a T4 injury who complains of a pounding headache. Upon assessment, his blood pressure is 218/104 and his heart rate is at 53bpm. Which of the following will the nurse do? (Select all that apply)

A. Request a STAT head CT

B. Position the patient in a high semi-Fowlers

C. Assess patient for constipation

D. Insert a foley catheter

E. Ensure patient's sheets are flat and dry

F. Administer tPA

What is B,C,D,E

Autonomic dysreflexia

500

J.J. is a patient who presents to the ED with symptoms similar to sepsis. Which of the following indicates that she is going into septic shock? (Select all that apply)

A. BP of 83/51

B. HR of 81

C. WBC of 3.2 x 10^3

D. GFR of 26

E. Lactate of 1.5

What is A,C,D