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100

What are the morphological/general characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus?

What is... 

cocci

cluster

gram positive

colonies are yellow/golden

facultative anaerobe 

100

How does prevalence impact specificity, sensitivity, negative predictive value, and positive predictive value?

What is...

specificity/sensitivity = no change

PPV = direct relationship

NPV = inverse relationship


100

What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal?

What is...

Bacteriostatic slows growth

Bactericidal destroys bacteria 

100

What do cytokines do and how does this relate to our patient's symptoms?

What is...

Activate nearby immune cells

Initiate inflammatory cascade

Recruit cells from circulation

Immunosuppressive

100

What is the function of histamine? 

What is...

Increase inflammatory response 

200

What is the difference between gram positive and negative bacteria in regards to staining?

What is...

Gram-positive = has thick peptidoglycan = call wall

Peptidoglycans retain crystal violet dye = stains purple

200

Define specificity and sensitivity in words and mathematically. 

What is...

Sensitivity:

If pt is positive what is the likelihood the test will be positive 

Sn = TP/(TP+FN)

Specificity:

If pt is negative what is the likelihood the test will be negative 

Sp = TN/(TN+FP)



200

What is the mechanism of action of cephalexin and is it bacteriostatic/bactericidal?? 

What is...

Bactericidal = inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding penicillin-binding proteins


200

How do neutrophils/macrophages/dendritic cells recognize pathogens? 

What is...

Neutrophil/macrophage/dendritic cells have pattern recognition receptors(PRR) which recognize Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns(PAMPs) and Danger Associated Molecular Patterns(DAMPs)

200

Name 3 functions of normal flora of the skin.

What is...

  • Colonization resistance

  • Production of antimicrobial peptides/metabolites

  • Modulation of host immunity

  • Barrier function support 

300

Name 3 test that can be used to identify Staphylococcus aureus. (explain the test and why it should be used)


What is...

  • Catalase test = catalase positive = can reduce reactive oxygen species  

  • Beta hemolysis = completely lyse red blood cells = when grown on blood agar the colonies has a clear patch surrounding them 

  • Mannitol salt agar = can grow in high salt environment 

  • Coagulase positive = enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin = clot formation


300

Define positive predictive value and negative predictive value in words and mathematically. 

What is...

PPV:

If test is positive what is the likelihood the patient will be positive

PPV = TP/(TP+FP)

NPV:

If test is negative what is the likelihood the test will be negative

NPV = TN/(FN+TN)



300

What is the mechanism of action of diaminopyrimidines and are they bacteriostatic/bactericidal?

What is...

  • TMP inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

  • Bacteriostatic alone
300

Explain complement

What is... 

1. Activation via alternative/classical/lectin pathway

2. C3A/B cleavage -> C3A = inflammation C3B = opsonization/phagocytosis 

3. C5A/CB cleavage -> C5A = inflammation C5B-9 = form Membrane Attack Complex(MAC) = lysis of microbe 

300

What is cellulitis?

What is...

Inflammation of the deep dermis and surrounding subcutaneous tissue due to bacterial infection 

400

Why is MRSA resistant and how is the resistance transferred?

What is...

mec gene on bacterial chromosome which codes for PBP-2A which has a lower affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics 

between bacteria via transduction

400

What is a common sequential testing strategy? 

What is...

Sensitive screening test followed by a more specific confirmatory test 

400

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides and are they bacteriostatic/bactericidal?

What is...

  • SMX inhibits dihydropteroate synthase

  • Bacteriostatic alone

400

What are three abilities of a neutrophil? 

What is...

1. Neutrophil Extracellular Traps(NETs)

2. Respiratory Burst

3. Degranulation = has granules = transport cytotoxic factors


400

How do Natural Killer Cells identify cells to kill and what three ways can they kill a cell? 

What is...

Kills cells with downregulated MHC-1 receptors 

  1. Proapoptotic signals
  2. Perforin granzyme = cytotoxic chemical
  3. Cytokine release = activates immune cells
500

Name 4 virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus.


What is...

  • Cell wall = can bond to host cell and initiate infection 

  • Coagulase = fibrin around bacteria can inhibit phagocytosis

  • Penicillinase = destroys penicillin 

  • Protein A binds to Fc region of antibody = inhibits complement activation and phagocytosis 

  • Capsule = decrease phagocytosis 

  • Exotoxin = TSST-1 superantigen = upregulate MHC II-CD4+ receptor activity = uncontrolled inflammatory response 

  • Leukocidin = lyses WBC

  • Exfoliatin = lyses epithelial cells

  • Lipases = lyses lipids 


500

Calculate sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV.

TP = 450

FP = 100

TN = 400

FN = 50

What is...

Sn = 90%

Sp = 80%

PPV = 81.8%

NPV = 88.9%

500

Why is cephalexin not ideal for gram negative bacteria and MRSA?

What is...

Gram negative bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide outer membrane  and many produce beta-lactamase

MRSA has PBP-2A, beta-lactams cannot bind 

500

Name two differences and similarities between macrophages and dendritic cells.

What is...

Differences:

1. Macrophages are tissue resident, dendritic cells are recruited to tissue

2. Dendritic cells activate naive T cells

Similarities:

1. Both derived from monocytes

2. Both can perform phagocytosis 

500

What are the clinical presentation of cellulitis and how can you distinguish cellulitis and erysipelas?

What is...

Cellulitis:

  • Poorly demarcated erythematous area

  • Edema

  • Tenderness

  • Warmth

  • With/without purulent drainage

    Erysipelas:

  • Well demarcated borders 
  • Bright red
  • Elevation of affected skin