FOM Midterm Jeopardy!

Neuroscience

100

What accounts for the relative refractory period during an action potential?

V-gated K+ channels are still open

200

Describe the flow of CSF

Lateral ventricle --> interventricular foramen --> third ventricle --> cerebral aquaduct --> fourth ventricle --> subarachnoid space --> arachnoid granulations --> superior sagittal sinus 

300

You are on a hike in the woods and come across a grizzly bear. What nervous system division is activated and name three effects it has on your body. 

Sympathetic nervous system - increases heart rate, bronchodilation, decreased peristalsis 

400

You are at home studying at night when you suddenly hear fireworks go off nearby, causing you to turn your head in the direction of the sound. What structure is responsible?

Inferior colliculi 

500

A patient presents after a fracture of the maxilla. They have numbness of the upper lip, cheek, and upper teeth, but their jaw strength is normal and the corneal reflex is intact. What cranial nerve was damaged?

Trigeminal (CNV) - Maxillary division (V2)

Neuroanatomy

100

What is the structure and function of letter E

Thalamus - relay center of sensory information 

200

Name the muscle group G and what nerve innervates it

Erector spinae group -->innervated by the posterior dorsal rami of spinal nerves

300

Name the structure and function of F. 

 

Abducens nerve (VI) - somatic motor innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye

400

Name this structure and where the cell bodies of the postganglionic neuron are located. 

Pre-central gyrus (primary motor cortex) --> postganglionic cell bodies are located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord 

500

A patient presents to the ED with left-sided weakness, spasticity, increased muscle tone, and a positive Babinski sign on the left. MRI scan shows evidence of a stroke. What spinal cord pathway is impaired and where is the lesion?

The Corticospinal tract --> lesion in the cortex on the right side of the brain 

Central Dogma

100

What protein is responsible for synthesizing DNA during DNA replication and what direction does it synthesize?

DNA Polymerase, 5' --> 3'

200

What allows for the formation of euchromatin?

HATs add acetyl groups to lysine residues on histone tails, neutralizing the charge between DNA, reducing the attraction and loosening up chromatin 

300

A 12-year-old boy undergoes multiple CT scans after a motor vehicle accident. His parents ask why physicians try to limit unnecessary CT imaging in children. What do you tell them? How would these mutations be repaired?

CT scans emit ionizing energy which can cause double stranded breaks which need to be repaired via non-homologous end joining and homologous recombination

400

What binds and recognizes the promoter and recruits the remaining general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II to form the pre-initiation complex

TFllD 

500

During translation elongation, what occurs after the growing peptide chain is attached to tRNA in the A site of the ribosome?

Translocation of the ribosome to the next codon via eEF2-GTP (GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP). 

Cell Biology

100

Which cell organelle is responsible for breaking down fatty acids and detoxification? What enzyme does this organelle contain?

Peroxisome - catalase 

200

What is the function of a desmosome?

Anchor intermediate filaments (Keratin filaments) in the cell which gives tissues high tensile strength 

300

What is O-linked glycosylation and where does it occur?

Serine/Threonine linked carbohydrate chains. Synthesized in the Golgi 

400

Where does a N-terminal signal peptide protein go in the cell? How does it get there? 

N-terminal peptides are destined for the RER to get secreted --> SRP binds the signal peptide and pauses translation. The ribosome is then translocated to the RER and binds to the SRP receptor to resume translation after the SRP is cleaved via GTP hydrolysis 

500

A new cancer drug prevents the dimerization of the EGFR receptor, what is the likely consequence?

No phosphorylation of receptor --> no activation of Ras --> No Raf activation --> no MEK phosphorylation --> no ERK phosphorylation --> no gene transcription 

Cell cycle/Fertilization

100

What happens when chromosomes attach to spindle fibers and the APC activates?

Destruction of cyclin-B/CDK1 via ubiquination pushes cells into anaphase --> APC degrades cohesions and chromosomes are pulled apart

200

p53 induces expression of p21 at what cell cycle checkpoint? What does p21 bind to?

Restriction checkpoint (G1/S) --> p21 binds to CDK2 which is bound to Cyclin E

300

A patient's tumor is found to contain a chromosome that shows the MYC gene under the control of a highly active promoter, resulting in constitutive overexpression of MYC and increased cyclin D production. Which of the following best describes this genetic alteration, and what type of cancer gene is MYC?

Gene rearragement resulting in overexpression --> Oncogene 

400

A full-term infant presents diffuse abnormalities of central nervous system myelination cells on MRI. What are these cells and from which embryologic structure do these cells originate?

Oligodendrocyte --> Neural tube --> Ectoderm 

500

A pharmaceutical company develops a novel anticancer drug that selectively inhibits Cdc25 phosphatase. What is the most likely downstream effect of this drug?

Cyclin-B/CDK1 remains phosphorylated and prevents the cell from passing the G2/M checkpoint --> no mitosis (cell arrest in G2/M checkpoint)