Cardiac
Renal
Endocrine
Meds
NCLEX
100

Name the most common cause of Coronary Artery Disease.

Atherosclerosis

100

Describe Oncotic pressure and Hydrostatic pressure

Oncotic pressure: pressure created by colloids (large molecules in the blood like albumin) that pulls fluid into the vasculature (in the glomerulus, this pressure works AGAINST FILTRATION)

Hydrostatic pressure: the pressure exerted by a fluid (which works to drive the movement of fluid. In the Bowman's capsule, this pressure works AGAINST FILTRATION)

100

Define the term postprandial 

After eating a meal 

100

Name a bronchodilator

Albuterol

100

A nurse is caring for a client with hypercapnia caused by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which nursing action will help to reduce serum carbon dioxide levels?

1. Encourage coughing and deep breathing

2. Increase oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min from 2 L/min

3. Instruct the client on pursed lips breathing

4. Perform percussion and postural drainage

3. Instruct the client on pursed lips breathing

(Generates positive pressure that keeps the airways open, improves expiration and promotes CO2 elimination)

200

Cardiac Output= *blank* x *blank*

Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

BONUS QUESTION: describe the MOA of Digoxin.

BOO-NUS QUESTION:

What electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity?

200

Why are RBCs an abnormal finding in a healthy person's urine sample

A healthy glomerulus has endothelial cells that are too small for red blood cells to get through.

BONUS QUESTION:

What substance stimulates RBC production?

BOO-NUS QUESTION:

Where is this substance released?
200

Name the insulin-type with the fastest onset

Lispro (Humalog)

200

Which type of insulin can be given IV?

Regular (Humalin-R)


(NO OTHER INSULIN CAN BE ADMINISTERED VIA IV)

200

A client is in suspected shock state from major trauma. Which of the following parameters indicate the adequacy of peripheral perfusion? (Select all that apply)

1. Apical pulse

2. Capillary refill time

3. Lung sounds

4. Pupillary response

5. Skin color and temperature

Capillary refill time (2)

and 

Skin color and temperature (5)

300

Describe the identifiable characteristics of the dysrhythmia Atrial Flutter. 

(Must mention at least two characteristics)

Rapid, but regular sequence of atrial depolarization

HR between 200 and 380 bpm. 

P-wave has sawtooth appearance 

QRS-complexes march out

Loss of "atrial kick"

300

In the Bowman's capsule, what prevents plasma proteins (like albumin) that may be small enough to squeeze through the holes of the glomerulus from passing?

The proteins in the basement membrane of Bowman's capsule have a negative charge that repels plasma proteins that may be small enough to filter through the fenestrae

300

The autonomic nervous system innervates the cells of the pancreas. Which part of the nervous system (PNS or SNS) stimulates pancreatic cell secretion? Which part of the nervous system inhibits pancreatic cell secretion?

PNS= stimulates secretion

SNS= inhibits secretion

300

Name a drug that can be used for sedation, pain management and does not increase the risk of hypotension, bradycardia or bradypnea 

ketamine

300

The nurse enters a client's room and observes that the client is experiencing angioedema, tongue swelling and dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (select all that apply)

1. Dangle the client's legs over the side of the bed

2. Administer supplemental oxygen to the client

3. Administer PO diphenhydramine to the client

4. Prepare the client for endotracheal intubation

5. Administer IM epinephrine to the client

2. Administer supplemental oxygen to the client

4. Prepare the client for endotracheal intubation

5. Administer IM epinephrine to the client

400

Define Preload

The volume generated in the ventricle at the end of diastole

and/or

the stretch that generates the force of contraction in systole (Frank Starling)

and/or 

volume of blood in the ventricles at end of diastole (end diastolic pressure)

400

What are the (approximate) normal serum values for potassium and sodium?

Potassium: 3.5-5.5

Sodium: 135-145


BONUS QUESTION:

Where is potassium primarily reabsorbed in the kidneys?

BOO-NUS QUESTION:

Is this reabsorption influenced by hormonal control?

400

What endocrine-related function causes blood glucose to rise when someone is sick?

Sympathetic NS innervation controlling the inhibition of pancreatic cell secretion causes an individual's blood glucose to RISE during illness.

400

Give the generic name for the drug used to treat B12 deficiency 

Cyanocobalamin

400

The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old client who has been uncooperative with the plan of care. Which communication by the nurse is appropriate for gaining the client's cooperation?

1. Do you want to take your medicine with grape juice?

2. It's time to change your bandage. Are you ready?

3. Would you like to sit on the bed or in the chair to eat lunch?

4. You have had a busy morning. I'll bet you are feeling tired!"

3. Would you like to sit on the bed or in the chair to eat lunch?

500

Define Pulmonary Artery Pressure (PAP) and what device is used to measure it.

The measurement of right ventricular function and pulmonary circulation pressures (indicating left ventricular function and preload).

AND

Swan-Ganz catheter

500

Where does Furosemide act on the kidneys?

Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle


BONUS QUESTION:

Where does Spironolactone act on the kidneys?

BOO-NUS QUESTION:

Which medication-- Furosemide or Spironolactone-- affects potassium levels more radically?

500

Define DKA and HHNKS

DKA: Diabetic Ketoacidosis-- a serious complication of (typically) type 1 DM caused by a severe insulin deficiency leading to severe hyperglycemia and eventually severe metabolic acidosis.

HHNKS: Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome-- a serious complication of type 2 DM where glucose production and release is increased OR glucose uptake by the body cells is decreased leading to profound dehydration, severe hyperglycemia and eventually, coma.

500

Name the drug class that is made up of biologic agents known to cause severe allergic reactions

Monoclonal antibodies (-umab)

500

A charge nurse in the radiation clinic is planning staff assignments for the day. Which client is appropriate to assign to a nurse who is pregnant?

1. A client who has just received ingestible radioactive iodine for thyroid cancer

2. A client who is receiving high-dose interstitial radiation in the left breast for breast cancer

3. A client who is receiving implanted radiation for treatment of cervical cancer

4. A client who will receive the first dose of external beam radiation to treat laryngeal cancer

4. A client who will receive the first dose of external beam radiation to treat laryngeal cancer

(the radioactive source is external to the body; therefore, clients do not emit radiation after treatment)