Lupus (SLE)
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
HIV/AIDS
DVT
Sickle Cell Disease
Hodgkin Lymphoma
Multiple Myeloma
Iron Def. Anemia
Pernicious Anemia/B12 Deficiency
100
A nurse assesses a client who has SLE. Which manifestation is indicative of lupus?
Malar rash / butterfly rash across the cheeks
100
Which physical manifestations might be present and visible in a patient with RA?
Joint deformity, swan-neck or boutonnière deformities, and subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules over bony prominences
100
HIV specifically targets and destroys which cells?
CD4 white blood cells (T cells)
100
A DVT most commonly occurs in which location?
The lower extremities / legs
100
What is sickle cell disease?
Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a genetic blood disorder (autosomal recessive) hemoglobinopathy where normal adult hemoglobin is replaced by abnormal sickle hemoglobin. HbS polymerizes under stress, red cells become rigid crescents (C shaped/sickle shaped), clump, and occlude small vessels — ischemia and pain — while hemolyzing early (low Hgb with high retics, LDH, bilirubin).
100
The two main categories of lymphoma are ________ lymphoma and ________ lymphoma.
Hodgkin & Non Hodgkin
100
A nurse reviews labs for a client who has multiple myeloma. Which result is an expected finding?
1. Decreased creatinine level
2. Elevated neutrophil count
3. Elevated calcium level
4. Elevated RBC count
3. Elevated calcium level
100
A client is starting ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?
1. Food will increase absorption of this medication
2. This medication can cause diarrhea
3. Stools can become pale in color
4. Follow-up laboratory testing will be required
4. Follow-up laboratory testing will be required
100
Autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells resulting in a lack of intrinsic factor is a condition known as ________.
Pernicious anemia
200
Name 2 medications/classes typically prescribed for SLE.
Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
NSAIDs
Prednisone (corticosteroids)
Immunosuppressants
Methotrexate
200
A nurse teaches a client with RA about modifiable risk factors for flare-ups. The teaching is successful when the client says they will avoid which of the following? Select all that apply.
1. Smoking
2. Bike riding
3. Exposure to people who are ill
4. Contact sports
1, 3 and 4
200
Which findings are risk factors for opportunistic infections in a client who has HIV? Select all that apply.
1. Low CD4 cell count
2. High viral load
3. Bathing daily
4. Use of ART
5. Exposure to infectious agents
1, 2, and 5
200
Name two environmental or situational factors ATI identifies as increasing DVT risk through venous stasis.
Hospitalization with prolonged bed rest, long-distance travel — flights or car rides lasting more than four hours, and occupations involving extended sitting such as long-haul truck driving.
200
What is the first sign/major sign a patient with sickle cell is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis?
Pain
200
What is a hallmark S/S of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Painless, firm, rubbery enlargement of cervical, supraclavicular, or mediastinal lymph nodes.
200
Which client has a MODIFIABLE risk factor for developing a blood cancer?
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus
2. A client with previous exposure to radiation
3. A client with obesity
4. A 65-year-old client
3. A client with obesity
200
A patient has started taking an iron supplement. What should the nurse suggest the patient take with the iron to help with absorption?
Orange juice / Vitamin C
200
By which routes can vitamin B12 replacement be administered?
Name at least 2
Intramuscular injection
Nasal spray
Gel
Oral supplement
300
Which are appropriate strategies to reduce triggers and minimize SLE flares? Select all that apply.
1. Long-term daily use of glucocorticoids
2. Physical therapy
3. Occupational therapy
4. Psychosocial support
5. Daily sun exposure
2, 3, and 4
300
Which medication class should the nurse expect to be included EARLY in treatment to slow RA disease progression?
DMARDs - DMARDs are usually prescribed early because they can slow or stop disease progression more efficiently and induce remission.
300
At what viral load is HIV considered undetectable, meaning it no longer poses a threat of transmission?
1. Under 40 to 75 copies/mL
2. Around 200 copies/mL
3. Under 1,000 copies/mL
4. Under 10,000 copies/mL
1. Under 40 to 75 copies/mL
300
The blood test that detects a small protein fragment that appears when a clot is present is the ________?
D-dimer
300
The most serious complication of sickle cell anemia, in which blood flow is blocked to the lungs causing breathing difficulty, fever, and severe chest pain, is ________.
Acute Chest Syndrome
300
Which manifestations are associated with lymphoma? Select all that apply.
1. Swelling of lymph nodes in the neck, groin, and under the arms
2. Itchy skin
3. Weight loss
4. Fever and night sweats
5. Shortness of breath and fatigue
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
300
How does hypercalcemia manifest in multiple myeloma?
Name at least 3
Increased thirst and urination, bone and abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, and it can adversely affect the client's mental status.
300
Which findings would the nurse expect in a client who has iron deficiency anemia?
Name at least 3
Shortness of breath, fatigue, heart palpitations (a “bounding” heartbeat), dizziness, and headaches, pallor
300
Which manifestations should the nurse expect in a client who has vitamin deficiency anemia?
Name at least 3
Fatigue, Shortness of breath, Visual deficits, Peripheral neuropathy, Mood changes/issues, Memory issues, Glossitis (beefy, red tongue), Ataxia (unsteady gait), Paresthesia, Pallor
400
Which environmental factors are cited by ATI as common lupus triggers? Select all that apply.
1. Ultraviolet (UV) light, including fluorescent light bulbs
2. Epstein-Barr virus
3. Silica dust found in agriculture or industry
4. Physical or emotional stress
5. Cold weather exposure
1, 2, 3, and 4
400
A client with RA is starting an anti-TNF biologic DMARD such as infliximab or etanercept. Which regular screening does ATI specify?
1. Regular testing for tuberculosis
2. Annual colonoscopy
3. Monthly bone density scans
4. Weekly blood glucose logs
1. Regular testing for tuberculosis
400
Which precautions prevent HIV transmission to health care workers? Select all that apply.
1. Sharps disposal containers
2. PPE such as gloves, mask, and goggles
3. Needle recapping safety devices
4. Hand hygiene with soap and water after contact with bodily fluids
5. Placing all clients with HIV in airborne isolation
1, 2, 3, and 4
400
The test that monitors venous blood flow using ultrasound waves and is specific for diagnosing DVT is ____________?
Venous Doppler (venous duplex ultrasound)
400
Name at least 3 precipitating factors of an acute sickle cell crisis.
Temperature extremes (Cold & Hot) / High altitudes
Infection
Stress / Activities requiring intense physical exertion
Hypoxia
Drugs / Tobacco smoke
400
Name 3 components of neutropenic precautions.
Strict hand washing, staying away from sick people and crowds, and avoiding fresh flowers, raw plants, and undercooked or unwashed foods.
400
From which sites is a bone biopsy or bone marrow aspiration typically obtained?
Name at least one.
The sternum (breast) or the posterior iliac crest.
A small piece of bone, bone marrow, and blood is removed with a needle, and a pathologist examines it for abnormal cells.
400
Which laboratory test is the most used test for diagnosing iron deficiency anemia?
Serum ferritin
400
Name a medication/class can interfere with vitamin B12 absorption and contribute to deficiency?
Metformin, Proton pump inhibitors, Antiseizure medications, Oral contraceptives
500
In addition to the malar rash, what other S/S are commonly seen with SLE?
Name at least 4
Joint pain/swelling, fatigue, photosensitivity, alopecia (hair loss), mouth ulcers, chest pain (pleuritis), kidney involvement, low-grade fever
500
Name at least 3 labs that might be ordered when treating a patient with RA.
ESR, CRP, Rheumatoid Factor, Anti-CCP antibody, Hemoglobin, WBC, ANA
500
What are these lesions called?
Kaposi's sarcoma
500
Which conditions are considered comorbidities for developing a DVT?
Name at least 5
Cancer, heart failure, diabetes, inflammatory bowel disease, nephrotic syndrome, HYPERtension, obesity, kidney disease, and burns.
500
Hydroxyurea is prescribed for sickle cell anemia. What is its action?
1. It thins the blood to prevent clot formation
2. It reactivates the production of fetal hemoglobin, reducing pain crises and acute chest syndrome
3. It replaces the abnormal hemoglobin with donor hemoglobin
4. It cures the disease after 6 months of therapy
2. It reactivates the production of fetal hemoglobin, reducing pain crises and acute chest syndrome
500
What is the hallmark lab/diagnostic finding confirming Hodgkin lymphoma?
Reed-Sternberg cells (Excisional lymph node biopsy identifying those cells)
500
Multiple myeloma originates in the ________ cells of the bone marrow, where a single abnormal cell multiplies rapidly and crowds out healthy cells.
Plasma
500
A client reports black stools since starting iron. Why must the nurse take a careful history rather than simply reassure the client?
Black stools are an expected side effect of iron supplementation, BUT black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding.
500
A nurse is concerned about vitamin B12 deficiency in a client who had gastric bypass surgery. What is the reason?
1. The client will lose vitamin B12 during weight loss
2. The area that produces intrinsic factor is bypassed
3. The prescribed diet will not include enough vitamin B12
4. New medications will reduce vitamin B12
2. The area that produces intrinsic factor is bypassed