Etiquette rules used in the workplace are called
protocol.
Law may be defined as
rules of conduct.
Medical records are
A) legal documents.
B) not legal documents if kept electronically.
C) always the property of the patient.
D) never the property of the patient.
E) legal documents only when a subpoena has been issued.
legal documents
Which federal law made substantive changes to HIPAA?
A) HITECH Act
B) Graham-Leach-Bliley Act
C) Electronic Communication Act
D) Patient Safety and Quality Act
E) Health Care and Education Act
HITECH Act
3) Which of these credentials is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field?
A) Certification
B) Accreditation
C) Registration
D) Reciprocity
E) Licensure
Licensure
The states and the federal government collect vital statistics in the United States that include births, deaths, marriages, divorces, and changes in civil status. What is the main purpose for collection of this information?
To assess population trends and needs.
What do professional organizations create to govern their members?
code of ethics
Another term for legal responsibility is
liability
11) The law that mandated electronic health records and provides the rules for patient access to their records is
A) OSHA.
B) JCAHO.
C) FDA.
D) DOJ.
E) HIPAA.
HIPAA
A patient believes her privacy rights have been violated by a local hospital. Under HIPAA, the patient
A) may immediately file a lawsuit in federal court.
B) may immediately file a lawsuit in a small claims court.
C) must first file a written complaint with the local medical society.
D) must first file a written complaint with the local district attorney.
E) must first file a written complaint with the Secretary of Health and Human Services through the Office of Civil Rights.
must first file a written complaint with the Secretary of Health and Human Services through the Office of Civil Rights.
Unintentionally, a health care provider fails to exercise what is considered ordinary care. This is called ________ and the provider may be sued by the patient.
Examples of public data collected by law from physicians include
various including: births, deaths, rapes, and assaults.
A pledge for physicians that remains influential today is
Hippocratic oath
What federal legislation created health insurance exchanges that provide individuals with an ability to purchase insurance?
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
18) Which of the following is not true about authorizations for release of records?
A) All patient authorizations should be witnessed by a notary public.
B) Patient authorizations should be witnessed.
C) Authorizations should be in writing.
D) Authorizations should be dated.
E) Authorizations should identify what information should be released.
All patient authorizations should be witnessed by a notary public.
A breach under HIPAA
is an unauthorized acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of personal health information.
If a mentally incompetent person enters into a contract, the agreement may be set aside or validated at a later date. In this case, the agreement is said to be
voidable
An obstetrician who delivers babies knows that all live births need to be recorded. To which of the following agencies should these births be reported?
State Registrar
A valid out-of-state license is accepted as the basis for issuing a license in a second state without reexamination. This is called
Reciprocity
Under the provisions in the Affordable Care Act, insurance companies must cover dependent children under the age of ________.
26
19) A subpoena duces tecum is issued for medical records of a patient who is suing the physician for malpractice. Which of the following is a guideline for sending this information?
A) Verify that the patient named was not a patient of the physician.
B) Notify the insurance company.
C) Review the record closely for any incriminating information and delete incriminating information.
D) Finish updating the record.
E) Offer sworn testimony regarding the record if instructed to do so by the court.
Offer sworn testimony regarding the record if instructed to do so by the court.
21) The Security Rule requires Covered Entities to
A) ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all records they create.
B) identify and protect against threats to security or integrity of records.
C) 867 protect against reasonable anticipated impermissible uses or disclosures.
D) ensure compliance by the staff.
E) all of these.
identify and protect against threats to security or integrity of records.
10) Which of the following is an example of a privileged communication?
A) A patient tells her physician that she uses illegal drugs.
B) A custodian speaks with a nurse about a problem with a disinfectant.
C) Parents discuss treatment options for their child who has autism.
D) A nurse practitioner explains a procedure to a patient.
E) An office clerk calls a patient by name at the checkout desk.
A) A patient tells her physician that she uses illegal drugs.
A division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, or accidents is called
Forensic Medicine
A new long-term care facility is applying for accreditation of the facility. To which of the following organizations should the facility submit the accreditation application?
A) The American Health Care Association.
B) The National Committee for Quality Assurance.
C) The Joint Commission.
D) The Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs.
E) The National Association for the Support of Long Term Care.
The Joint Commission
The highest law in our country is
US Consititution
20) Which of the following information is the federal statute known as the Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records designed to protect?
A) Victims of crimes committed by drug addicts.
B) Patient convictions.
C) Patient behavior.
D) Patient treatment.
E) Physician liability.
Patient treatment.
An orthopedic surgeon refers his patients to a radiology facility owned by his brother. What law is potentially being violated?
A) Federal Anti-Kickback law
B) Stark Law
C) Federal False Claims Act
D) HIPAA
E) HITECH
Stark Law
A health care practitioner who practices the "four Cs of medical malpractice prevention" finds two important benefits related to one of the "Cs"—that is, improvement in patients' medical conditions and the decreased likelihood that they will sue. Which "C" is most likely to provide these benefits?
A) Caring
B) Communication
C) Control
D) Competence
E) Charting
caring
What is the main reason for health care practitioners to report sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to the state health department?
To treat others who may be infected.
3) A physician working in an emergency room is obligated to treat all the patients who come through the door. This is an example of which of the following concepts?
A) Standard of care
B) Duty of care
C) Reasonable person standard
D) Reasonable person care
E) Performance standard
Duty of Care
A court of last resort is commonly known as a
Supreme Court
22) For which of the following examples would implied consent not be legally appropriate?
A) A physician treating a patient for lung cancer.
B) A patient providing a urine specimen to check for a UTI.
C) A nurse taking a blood pressure in the exam room.
D) A patient agrees to a test for HIV.
E) A patient agrees to a chest x-ray.
A patient agrees to a test for HIV.
A certified medical assistant is constantly updating her knowledge and skills by attending in-services and seminars. This person is practicing which of the "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention"?
A) Caring
B) Competence
C) Charting
D) Communication
E) Control
competence
In most states, which of the following cases is not mandated as a reportable injury?
A) A physician suspects child abuse in a child with multiple fractures.
B) A physician suspects spousal abuse, however the patient does not admit it occurred.
C) A physician treats a patient who states that she was raped.
D) A physician treats a person who was assaulted in a parking lot.
E) A physician treats an elderly patient who fails to take his medicine.
A physician suspects spousal abuse, however the patient does not admit it occurred.
15) A surgeon removes the wrong kidney from a patient. The patient can sue under which of the following legal doctrines?
A) Res judicata
B) Respondeat superior
C) Res ipsa loquitur
D) Caveat emptor
E) Qui tam
Res ipsa loquitur=doctrine of common knowledge
There are ________ branches of the federal government.
3
4) The first federal law to specifically deal with the privacy of health care records was
HIPAA
For legal purposes, the healthcare professional should know that if it isn't in writing and explained completely and accurately, it wasn't done. To which of the following "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention" does this statement refer?
A) Caring
B) Competence
C) Control
D) Communication
E) Charting
charting
Which agency tests and approves prescription drugs before releasing them for public use?
Food and Drug Administration
26) A nurse stops by the scene of an auto accident. She helps a conscious patient to remain calm and provides basic first aid to the patient. The patient later sues the nurse for malpractice. What state law will probably be used in the nurse's defense?
A) Informed consent rules
B) Nursing practice act
C) Emergency rules of the road
D) Good Samaritan Act
E) Medical practice act
Good Samaritan Act
Which doctrine says a lawsuit cannot move forward if a certain period of time has elapsed?
statute of limitations
19) A medical malpractice lawsuit has been decided under the doctrine of res judicata. What does this Latin term mean?
A) The tortfeasor has been released.
B) The thing has been decided.
C) The statute of limitations is up.
D) The thing speaks for itself.
E) The buyer should beware.
The thing has been decided
Which of the following agencies registers physicians for the writing of prescriptions of controlled substances?
Drug Enforcement Administration
The primary source of information for OSHA standards is
A) the medical office policy handbook.
B) hospital policies and procedures.
C) OSHA state law.
D) OSHA federal law.
E) OSHA Web site.
OSHA Web site.
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 covers which of the following?
A) Makes discrimination in the workplace illegal.
B) Applies to businesses with 25 employees or more.
C) Does not cover discrimination with respect to gender.
D) Applies only to the hiring and firing of employees.
E) Applies to safety in the workplace.
Makes discrimination in the workplace illegal.
Quid pro quo is prohibited under the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) definition of sexual harassment. Which of the following is an example of this type of harassment?
A) A physician makes a nurse feel uncomfortable by constantly commenting on her attire and physical appearance.
B) A practice manager constantly talks about her sexual activities in the office.
C) A nurse in a nursing home sexually harasses physically disabled patients whom she is helping to take a shower.
D) A physician constantly talks about his "love life" in front of the office staff.
E) A surgical resident is offered opportunities to scrub in on a procedure if he dates the surgeon.
A surgical resident is offered opportunities to scrub in on a procedure if he dates the surgeon.
Safety Data Sheets (SDS) are
A) only used in hospitals.
B) only used in medical labs.
C) sometimes used in medical offices.
D) only required after an OSHA violation.
E) required in any business that has any hazardous material.
required in any business that has any hazardous material.
14) The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is designed to protect health care workers against which of the following?
A) any contagious disease
B) Cancer causing agents
C) contagious diseases like HIV
D) contagious diseases like the flu
E) contagious diseases like rabies
contagious diseases like HIV