Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
Exam
100

Which type of hearing loss shows an air-bone gap on an audiogram


A Sensorineural
B Conductive
C Mixed
D Central Auditory Processing

C Mixed

A conductive component creates an air-bone gap, mixed has both A and B

100

1 Which structure is responsible for converting mechanical energy into neural impulses
A Tympanic Membrane
B Basilar Membrane
C outer Hair Cells
D Inner hair cells

D Inner hair cells

100

6 A noise notch at 4 kHz is associated with
A Presbycusis
B Meniere's Disease
C Noise exposure
D Ototoxicity

C Noise exposure

100

11 An air-bone gap of 20 bd at multiple frequencies indicates:

A Sensorineural loss
B Conductive loss
C Mixed
D Nonorganic

B Conductive

100

16 The masked symbol for bone conduction in the left ear is
A >
B <
C ]
D [

C ]


100

21 A patient reports tinnitus and aural fullness with fluctuating low frequency loss, likely cause
A Otoaclerosis
B Noise Trauma
C Meniere's
D Age related hearing loss

C Meniere's

100

26 The Microphone in digital hearing aid coverts
A Mechanical->Electrical
B Electrical->Acoustic
C Acoustic -> electrical
D Digital -> Analog

C Acoustic -> Electrical

100

31 The most feedback prone hearing aid is
A CIC
B RIC
C BTE
D ITE

B RIC

100

What fitting rationale is common for adults with SNHL

NAL-NL2

100

Satisfied vs Dissatisfied patients; most effective counseling approach

Realistic expectation and communication strategies

100

Patients SRT is 30 dB HL, but they cannot repeat words until 70 dB. What is this

Possible functional hearing loss

100

For speech masking: initial level 

SRT(NTE)+10

100

Why would you choose a BTE over an ITE for severe loss

Higher output and lower distortion, better feedback control

100

What is REIG

Real ear insertion gain-aided response-unaided response

100

Occulsion only when speaking loudly suggests

vent too small

200

A patient's SRT is 40 dB HL. At what level should you present word-recognition testing
A 40Db HL
B 55 dB HL
C 70 dB HL
D 90 dB HL

C. SRT + 30 dB is typical
Word_Rec is usually presented 30-40 db above srt unless loudness discomfort requires adjustment

200

2 The Stapedius muscle contracts in response to
A High frequency signals
B Loud Sounds
C Head Movement
D Pressure Changes

B Loud Sounds

200

7 Which freq region is responsible for speech clarity
A 125-250 hz
B 250-500 hz
C 1000-2000 hz
D 2000-4000 hz

D 2000-4000 hz

200

12 Bone conduction thresholds reflect
A Outer ear fuction
B Middle ear function
C Cochlear and neural fuction
D Conductive pathways

C Cochlea and neural function

200

17 The primary reason to mask is to
A Reduce ambient noise
B Prevent cross hearing
C Improve comfort
D Increase loudness

B Prevent cross hearing

200

22 A patient responds when no tone is presented. This is known as a
A Recruitment
B Auditory Fatigue
C False-positive
D False-negative

C False-positive

200

28 A patient says voices sound "tinny" Likely issue
A low frq gain too high
B High freq gain too high
C Receiver blocked
D feedback

B High frq gain too high

200

32 Real ear measurements verify
A Battery Life
B Fit and output in the ear canal
C Warrenty coverage
D Telecoil performance

B Fit and output in the ear canal

200

What fitting rationale is common for children with SNHL

DSL v5 (more audibility for soft speech)

200

If UCL = 95 dBHL and threshold = 55 dB hl, what is the dynamic range

40 dB

200

Roll-over in word recognition occurs when

WRS decreases dignificantly as intensity increases (retrocochlear sign)

200

If plateau cannot be achieved due to overmasking, what should you record

Masking dilemma--thresholds may be unmeasurable 

200

A patient has dexterity issues. Best style

BTE with large controls or rechargeable RIC

200

When performing REM, where should the probe tip be

within 5mm of eardrum

200

Patient reports "hallow barrel-like" sound

Excessive low freq gain or closed dome

300

Patient complains that voices sound muffled. Which issues is most likely
A Excessive low-frequency gain
B Dead Battery
C Excessive high frequency gain
D Receiver failure

A Excessive low freq gain creates a boomy/muffled sound

300

3 Hearing loss caused by otosclerosis is typically
A High-frequency sensorineural
B Reverse slope
C Conductive
D Fluctuating

C Conductive

300

8 Recruitment is most commonly associated with
A Conductive loss
B Retrocochlear loss
C Cochlear Loss
D Central auditory processing disorder

C Cochlea loss

300

13 The SRT should be in agreement with the PTA within
A 5 dB
B 10 dB
C 15 dB
D 20 dB

B 10 dB

300

18 Interaural attenuation for insert earphones is typically
A 20 dB
B 40 dB
C 60 dB
D 80 dB

c 60 dB

300

23 Overmasking occurs when
A Masking exceeds interaural attenuation
B Masking noise crosses over to the test ear
C Threshold shifts improve
D Speech becomes too loud

B Masking noise crosses over to the test ear

300

27 Compression in digital hearing aids
A Eliminates loud sounds
B Increases soft sounds more than loud sounds
C Lowers all sounds equally
D Reduces background noise only

B Increases soft sounds

300

33 The vent in an earmold primarily affects
A High freq
B Midrange
C Low freq
D All freq equally

C Low frq

300

What contraindicates taking an impression

Active infection, drainage, fresh surgery, non-intact TM

300

A wide dynamic range (small DR) requires whatt

More compression

300

A precipitous high freq loss suggests what fitting challange

Feedback and reduced high freq output

300

If bone conduction is unmasked and better than expected, what is this

Cross-hearing

300

Patient resports echo in large rooms. What feature helps

Adaptive directionality; reduce reverberant HF gain

300

Probe tip too shallow causes what error

Artificial dip/rolloff in HF

300

If patient hears better without aids in loud noise why

Poor noise reductions, or misprogrammed directional system

400

When taking an ear impression, which step ensures patient safety
A Using a deep insertion technique
B Checking for an intact tympanic membrane
C Pre-inserting an otoblock
D Removing cerumen manually

C - prevents impression material from inserting too deeply

400

4 The main function of the Eustachian tube is to
A Amplify sound
B Equalize pressure
C Maintain fluid balance in the cochlea
D Filter low-freq sounds

B Equalize pressure

400

9 The middle ear provides an impedance match between
A Air and Bone
B Air and fluid
C Fluid and Bone
D Fluid and air conduction

b Air and fluid

400

14 Word recog testing measures
A Speech detection
B Understanding at comfortable Loudness
C Speech comfort level
D Noise tolerance

B Understanding at comfortable loudness

400

19 If the SRT is 40 dB HL, WRS presentation is typically
A 40 dB
B 55 dB
C 70 dB
D 80 dB

C 70 dB

400

24 A Rollover index is used to detect
A Cochlear Loss
B Conductive Loss
C Retrocochlear loss
D Mixed loss

C Retrocochlear loss

400

29 Directional microphones improve hearing in
A quiet only
B noise only
C windy enviroments
D background noise with speech in front

D Background noise with speech in front

400

34 Impulsion feedback occurs when
A Feedback changes with jaw movements
B The hearing aid malfunctions
C digital processing fails
D moisture is inside the shell

A Feedback changes with jaw movements

400

What rish occurs if impression material passes a perforated TM

Middle ear damage and surgical removal

400

Adult prescriptive targets emphasize what

Speech intelligibility over loudness comfort

400

Stenger test positive =

Indicates functional (non-organic) unilateral hearing loss

400

Effective masking means

noise is sufficient to eliminate NTE participation without affecting TE

400

Patient hears "buzzing" near electronics. Cause

Electromagnetic interference (EMI)

400

If REAR exceeds MPT targets what adjustment is needed

Lower maximum output or adjust compression kneepoint

400

Complaints of muffled sound after wax buildup removal, why

Patient had adapted to blocked sound, restrain auditory system

500

Patient has normal bone conduction but elevated air conduction thresholds. This is:

A Sensorineural
B Conductive
C Mixed
D Nonorganic

B Conductive

500

5 The traveling wave in the cochlea is tonotopically organized. High freq stimulate the
A Apex
B Base
C Scala Media
D Round window

B Base

500

10 Speech frequencies are typically between
A 100-1000 Hz
B 250-6000 hz
c 1000-8000 hz
D 5000-10000 hz

b 250-6000 hz

500

15 if AC Right = 60 dB at 1 kHz, AC Left = 20 dB, masking is needed for
A Right Ear
B Left Ear
C Neither
D Both

a Right ear

500

20 A flat, mild hearing loss typically has
A Equal thresholds across freq
B Sloping thresholds
C Rising thresholds
D Notched thresholds

A Equal thresholds across frq

500

25 A speech banana on an audiogram represents
A Comfortable listening region
B Normal conversational spectrum
C High freq environmental sounds
D noise exposure levels

B Normal conversational spectrum

500

30 A telecoil works best with
A bluetooth devices
B Loop systems
C rechargeable batteries
D music programs

B Loop systems

500

35 Expansion is used to
A Reduce loud sounds
B Reduce very soft sounds (circiut noise)
C Improve speech clarity
D increase compression

B reduce very soft sounds

500

If a patient feels sharp pain during impression curing, what should you do

stop immediately and remove impression material

500

A patient with low-freq SNHL and good high-freq hearing is best fit with what 

Open fit RIC

500

Tymp Type C (-250 daPa) patient complains of muffled hearing. Likely cause

Eustachian tube dysfunction

500

Shadow curve occurs when

Cross hearing cause NTE to respond wo TE stimulus

500

If aid frequently becomes blocked, what should you recommend

Wax management, filters, cleaning schedule

500

What does RECD measure

Difference between real-ear and coupler values--vital for pediatric fittings

500

Battery drains extremely fast

Wireless streaming always on, shorted circuitry, or moisture

600

36 Which hearing aid style gives the most power
A CIC
B ITE
C RIC
D BTE with earmold

D BTE with earmold

600

46 A patient with asymmetrical loss should be
A Fitted immediately
B Retested yearly
C Referred to ENT
D Given a stronger aid

C Referred to ENT

600

1 The basilar membrane is widest and least stiff at the
A Base
B Apex
C Middle
D Helicotrema

B Apex

600

16 Insert Earphones provide an IA of approximately
A 20 dB
B 40 dB
C 60 dB
D 80 dB

c 60 dB

600

26 A directional microphone uses
A One port
B Two sound inlets
C A telecoil input
D FM compatibility

B Two sound inlets

600

36 Which hearing aid provides the highest power potential
A CIC
B ITC
C RIC
D BTE with full earmold

D BTE with full earmold

600

In acoustic reflex testing, reflexes are all absent in all conditions except ipsilateral probe right; what is likely

Left middle ear pathology or left facial nerve lesion

600

If masking noise overcomes the TE threshold and elevates it artificially, this is called what

over masking

600

What is the purpose of otoblock

Protect TM and control depth of impression material

600

What tool is used to verify amplification objectively

Real ear measurement (rem/probe mic)

600

Tymp normal: acoustic reflex absent. Likely cause

Cochlear pathology (>50 dB HL) or retrocochlear

600

What frequencies are most susceptible to cross hearing

High freq due to lower IA

600

You suspect a retrocochlear disorder. What must you do before fitting

refer to ENT/doctor

600

RECD unusually high suggests what

Small ear canal volume

600

Frequent feedback despite new molds

High HF prescription, TM perforation, canal anormalities

700

37 A patient complains "My own voice is booming" this is:
A Occlusion
B Feedback
C Distortion
D Dead battery

A Occulsion

700

47 Professional boundaries mean
A Becoming friends with patients
B Avoiding dual relationships
C Sharing personal contact info
D Giving discounts freely

B Avoiding duel relationships

700

7 A retrocochlear lesion often causes
A Good speech scores
B Roll-over on WRS
C Conductive patterns
D Excellent high frequency hearing

B Rollover on WRS

700

17 If bone conduction equals air conduction, the loss is
A Conductive
B Sensoryneural
C Mixed
D Nonorganic

B Sensorineural

700

27 Digital noise reduction primarily reduces
A Human speech
B Environmental steady-state noise
C Wind noise only
D All sounds equally

B Environmental steady-state noise

700

37 Real-ear measurements verify
A Prescriptive targets
B Battery drain
C Telecoil settings
D Wax build up

A Prescriptive targets

700

What hearing loss pattern suggests noise-induced damage

Cookie bite - Notch at 3-6 khz (often 4 khz)

700

When can over masking occur earlier than expected

Bilateral conductive losses (small interaural attenuation) 

700

A patient requests tat you "Just raise the volume all the way" What is the ethical response

Decline and councel, unsafe fitting violate standard of care

700

If real ear results show under amplification at soft imputs 

Increase low-level (soft input) gain

700

If word recognition is 20%, but patient insists they hear the words fine, what is happening

good audiability, poor clarity due to cochlear distortion

700

Patient reports "booming" sound

Reduce low freq gain or increase vent size

700

Selling a hearing aid without required documentation violates what

state licensing laws and consumer protection laws

700

RECD unusually low suggests what

Large canal volume (common in infants)

700

Speech fluctuates in quiet

overactive noise reduction

800

38 Increasing a vent size will
A Reduce occlusion
B Increase low frq gain
C Improve feedback
D Increase high freq output

A Reduce inclusion

800

48 HIPAA Protects
A Clinic employees
B Insurance companies
C Patient health information
D Device manufacturers

C Patient health information

800

8 The organ of Corti rests on the
A Round window
B Basilar Membrane
C Reisser's Membrane
D Stria vascularis

B Basilar Membrane

800

18 A patient with SRT = 35 dB HL should have a WRS presented around
A 35 dB
B 45 dB
C 65-75 dB
D 90 dB

C 65-75 dB

800

28 A patient reports that their own voice is too loud. Likely cause
A Excessive high frq gain
B Occlusion
C Low battery
D Feedback

B Occlusion

800

39 Adaptive directionality means
A User cannot change the program
B The microphone adjusts to noise source
C The aid switches to telecoil
D Only one microphone is active

B The microphone adjusts to noise source

800

Word recognition scores R 96%, L 48%. What does this suggest

Possible retrocochlear involvement in the left ear

800

A patient complains of a "tinny" sound. What adjustment should help

Reduce high freq gain

800

You suspect medical red flag symptoms. Your obligation

Refer to doctor before continuing with fitting/testing

800
If a patient complains of "hollow" own voice quality

Reduce low-freq gain or increase vent size

800

Sudden SNHL is suspected. What is required

Immediate RNT referral-medical emergancy

800

If patient struggles in wind, what feature helps

Wind reduction+proper mic placement

800

A patient fails the aided benefit test during trial period. What must you offer

Refund per state-mandated trial rules
800

Why are children fit using DSL v5

Prioritized audibility of soft speech for developing language

800

Patient only hears out of one side during phone use, fix

active telecoil or phone-mic streaming mode

900

39 An adaptive directional microphone
A Changes direction automatically
B Remains fixed forward
C Works only outdoors
D Always uses Omni mode

A Changes direction automatically

900

49 If a patient misunderstands instructions, the best approach is to
A Speak louder
B Rephrase simply
C Repeat the same words
D Hand them a brochure

B Rephrase simply

900

9 Acoustic reflex pathway includes which cranial nerve
A CN III
B CN V
C CN VII
D CN XII

C CN VII

900

19 A "Cookie bite" audiogram refers to
A Mid frq loss
B Low frq loss
C High frq loss
D Notched loss

A Mid frq loss

900

29 Increasing compression ratio will
A Make loud sounds louder
B Reduce loud sounds more
C Increase soft sounds
D Improve directionality

B Reduce loud sounds more

900

40 Wind noise reduction helps the most in
A Indoor meetings
B Controlled environments
C Outdoor activities
D Car travel only

C Outdoor activities

900

Tymp: Type As, what does it indicate

Stiff system (Otosclerosis thickened TM)

900

For occlusion effect relief in molds, what modification helps

Larger vents or open fit done

900

A minor (age 14) needs hearing aids. What is required

parental consent and medical evaluation

900

Compression ratio of 3:1 means what

For each 3 dB increase in input, output changes 1 dB

900

Patient has diplacusis. What is this

Pitch perception differs between ears

900

A patient complains that speech sounds are "too soft" even when at high volumes. Cause

Insufficient gain for soft inputs or low compression ratio

900

Battery disposal guidance is required by

Health and safety regulations and manufacturer recommendations

900

If REAR is below target at soft inputs but ok at medium, what needs adjustment

increase low level compression gain

900

Patient reports burst of loud noise durign movement

Loose microphone or internal component failure

1000

40 Bluetooth LE audio provides
A Lower latency and better battery life
B less compatibility
C only monaural streaming
D No benefits over classic bluetooth

A Lower latency and better battery life

1000

50 A red irritated ear canal after wearing hearing aids usually indicates
A Good seal
B Allergic reaction or poor fit
C low battery
D Compression issue

B Allergic reaction or poor fit

1000

10 Which frequency carries most vowel sounds
A 125-500 hz
B 1000-2000 hz
C 2000-4000 hz
D 6000-8000 hz

A 125-500 hz

1000

20 Meniere's disease typically shows
A Fluxuating low frequency SNHL
B Stable high-frq loss
C Conductive loss
D Excellent WRS

A Fluxuating low frq SNHL

1000

30 The receiver converts
A Digital -> Analog
B Analog -> Digital
C Electrical ->Acoustic
D Acoustic -> Electrical

C Electrical to Acoustic

1000

43 If the impression material touches the TM, the specialist should
A Gently pull material outward
B Refer to ENT immediately
C Add more material
D Ignore unless painful

B Refer to ENT immediately

1000

Tymp: Type Ad, likely causes

Flaccid TM ossicular disarticulation

1000

What does WDRC (wide dynamic range compression) do

Provides soft sound audibility while keeping loud sounds comfortable

1000

Patient refuses medcal referral despite red flags. What do you do

Document and do not proceed with the fitting

1000

A patient has dead regions above 3 kHz. Best fitting option

Freq lowering/transposition

1000

What audiogram pattern suggests presbycuiss

Gradually sloping high freq snhl

1000

Freq compression is most useful for

Dead zone regions in high freq

1000

Who can sign a medical waiver

Adults who understand it's meaning

1000

What causes high freq mismatch between target and measured

probe tube blocked, shallow placement, or feedback suppression reducing HF gain

1000

Patient resports sharp pain AFTER impression removal. What should you do

Inspect canal, if abrasion or bleeding stop and refer

1100

41 Before taking an ear impression, always
A Warm the material
B Perform otoscopy
C Insert lubricant
D Play a test tone

B Perform otoscopy

1100

2 Which structure separates the scala typani and scala media
A Reissner's Membrane
B Tectorial membrane
C Basilar membrane
D Stapedius tendon

C Basilar membrane

1100

11 The PTA is usually calculated from
A 250-1000 hz
B 500, 1000, and 2000 hz
C 2000-8000 hz
D 1000 hz only

B 500, 1000, and 2000 hz

1100

21 A False negative occurs when the patient
A Responds with no tone
B Hears but does not respond
C Only guesses
D Responds too much

B Hears but does not respond

1100

31 A clogged wax filter will produce
A Distortion
B Intermittency
C Weak or no sound
D Feedback

C Weak or no sound

1100

45 Intermittent hearing aid function is open caused by
A weak battery connection
B OMNI mode
C High MPO
D Compression

A Weak battery connection

1100

Tymp: Type B with large ecv

TM peroration or patent PE tube

1100

What fitting issue is likely if loud sounds are too loud

Compression kneepoint too low or MPO too high

1100

If a hearing aid returns from repair with biological debris what must be done

Disinfection/sterilization per infection control protocal

1100

If the patient works in noisy environments with machinery

Fit hearing direction, directional mics, and noise management counseling

1100

A noise notch at 4 kHz appears in only one ear. What should you investigate

Occupational noise exposure, weapon use, asymetrical noise

1100

A patient has great performance in quiet, poor in noise. Hearing aid change

Improve directional mics, noise reduction, consider remote mic

1100

When should a medical referral override patient preference

When red flag symptoms indicate risk (eg sudden loss, ostorrhea)

1100

Why verify MPO

prevent discomfort and avoid exceeding UCL

1100

What increases risk or otoblock movement past ISTP (isthmus)

soft or undersized otoblock, improper shaping

1200

42 The otoblock should be placed
A At the aperture
B Past the second bend
C In the cartilaginous region only
D Against the tympanic membrane

B Past the second bend

1200

3 The primary function of outer hair cells is to
A Send signals to the brain
B Amplify and fine tune sound
C Maintain endolymph
D Protect the cochlea from loud noise

B Amplify and fine tune sound

1200

12 The threshold is defined as the intensity at which a told is heard
A 50% of the time
B 100% of the time
C 25 % of the time
D Rarely

A 50% of the time

1200

22 Over masking happens when noise
A Reaches threshold in the test ear
B Crosses over to the test ear
C Is too loud to administer
D Makes speech unclear

B Crosses over to the test ear

1200

32 A larger vent generally
A Increases occlusion
B Reduces low frq amplification
C Increases loudness
D Reduces feedback

B Reduces low frq amplification

1200

46 A patient with sudden hearing loss requires
A New aids
B ENT referral
C Real-ear measurements
D More low frequency gain

B ENT referal

1200

Tymp: Type B with normal ECV

Middle ear fluid

1200

Feedback is worsening; name three possible causes

poor fit, excessive HF gain, wax in ear canal

1200

What must be provided during a hearing aid sale (federal mandate)

Purchase agreement including trial-period terms and fees

1200

AC thresholds show a flat 25 dB HL, BC WNL, word recognition excellent

Minimal conductive hearing loss or measurement variability, recheck otoscopy and tymps

1200

What interaural attenuation (IA) do you assume for supra-aural headphones

~40 dB

1200

What does MPO control

Maximum output (protects from loudness discomfort)

1200

Falsifying test results for a sale is a violation of what

Professional ethics, state law, and potential criminal statutes

1200

When performing REM on an open-fit, what special setting must be used

Open-fit calibration or modified pressure method

1200

Silicone impression adheres to hair in canal. What can prevent this

lubricated otoblock or cotton block, proper otoscopy

1300

43 Which symptom during impressions requires immediate stopping
A Tickling
B Mild pressure
C Sharp Pain
D slight warmth

C Sharp pain

1300

4 A patient with noise induced hearing loss will likely show a notch at
A 500 Hz
B 1000 Hz
C 3000-6000 Hz
D 800-10000 Hz

C 3000-6000 hz

1300

13 Speech detection threshold SDT is
A Always higher than SRT
B Always lower than SRT
C Equal to WRS
D Not related to speech

B Always lower than SRT

1300

23 When masking speech, the preferred noise is
A White noise
B Speech shaped noise
C Narrow band noise
D Pink noise

B Speech shaped noise

1300

33 Expansion reduces
A Loud speech
B Soft Background noise
C Overall output
D High frq gain

B Soft background noise

1300

Air = 55 dbhl, Bone = 10 dbhl, flat across all frequencies. Is this conductive, sensorineural, or mixed

Conductive; large air bone gap with normal bc

1300

You test BC R ear at 50 dB AC L ear = 20 dB. Is masking needed

Yes.  10 dB difference between BC test ear and AC non-test ear

1300

What is the major difference between linear and nonlinear amplification

Linear applies constant gain: nonlinear compresses dynamic range

1300

What is informed consent

a patient understands the risks, benefits, alternatives before agreeing

1300

A patient has asymmetrical SNHL (Different>= 15 dB at 2+ freq. What must you do

Medical clearance to rule out retro cochlear pathology

1300

IA for insert headphones 

~55-60 dB

1300

The patient hearing their own chewing loudly

Occlusion effect--reduce LF gain or enlarge vent

1300

Record retention is required for how long

Generally 3-7 years or 3-7 years after minor turns 18, varies by state law

1300

patient hears "fluttering" or "pulsing". Cause

Automatic gain control artifacts; adjust attack/release times

1300

Material hardens unusually fast

old product, improper mixing, or expired catalyst

1400

44 Infection control requires
A Gloves only
B Gloves and handwashing
C Gloves only for impressions
D Handwashing only

B Gloves and handwashing

1400

5 Presbycusis typically begins with
A Low freq loss
B Rising audiogram
C High freq loss
D Conductive loss

c High frq loss

1400

14 Word Recognition scores WRS involve
A Spondees
B Monosyllabic words
C Sentences
D Numbers

B Monosyllabic words

1400

24 An air-bone gap of 10 dB is considered 

A Normal variation
B Conductive
C Mixed
D Abnormal

A Normal variation

1400

34 A patient complains of "whistling" most likely
A Occlusion
B Feedback
C Dead Receiver
D Over compression

B Feedback

1400

A 2 khz bone conduction notch (carthart notch) suggests what pathology

Otosclerosis

1400

Initial masking for AC uses what formula

AC(NTE)+10

1400

Hearing aids with directional microphones provide best improvement  what situation

speech in noise when speech is in front and noise behind

1400

If a patient fails the medical waiver comprehension test

They cannot legally sign the waiver

1400

Weber lateralizes to the right: R ear ac = 65, BC = 20; Left ear ac = 50, BC = 50. Where is the pathology

Right ear conductive loss

1400

Masking requirement for BC when

AGB >= 10dB

1400

If REM shows too much HF output

Reduce HF gain or adjust frequency response

1400

Why is REM required for best practice fittings

It measures actual sound at the eardrum, accounting for individua ear accustics

1400

Hearign aid distorts only at high input levels. Cause

MPT too high, or receiver overdriving

1400

Deep-canal impression needed for musician plugs--what extra step

Use firm otoblock and verify placement carefully near bony canal

1500

45 A hearing aid user complains of intermittent sound. First step
A Replace device
B Run REM
C Check wax filter
D Order new receiver

C Check wax filter

1500

6 Air conduction tests
A outer, middle, and inner ear
B Inner ear only
C Neural pathways only
D Middle ear only

A Outer, middle, and inner ear

1500

15 When AC (test ear) -IA > or = BC, non test ear, you must
A Raise intensity
B Mask
C Stop testing
D Switch ears

B Mask

1500

25 A precipitously sloping audiogram shows
A Rapid drop at high frq
B Rising toward low frq
C Flat thresholds
D Reverse slope

A Rapid drop at high frq

1500

35 Which style provides the most cosmetic invisability
A BTE
B ITE
C CIC
D RIC

C CIC

1500

A patient with Meniere's disease typically shows what audiogram pattern

rising (low frequency) sensorineural hearing loss, can become flat later on

1500

Plateau method: why increase masking by 5 dB steps

To ensure TE threshold remains stable and NTE is fully masked

1500

A patient reports difficulty understanding speech at a distance; what feature helps

directionality or remote microphone system

1500

HIPAA requires what regarding patient records

Secure storage, limited access, and release only with authorization

1500

Speech recognition threshold does not agree with PTA, what does this suggest

Non-organic hearing loss, or poor test reliability

1500

Masking dilemma occurs when

Bilateral conductive losses causing over masking

1500

What is recruitment

Rapid growth of loudness in cochlear HL ->requires compression

1500

If REUG (unaided gain) is unusually low, what does it indicate

Narrow canal, blockage, or abnormal ear acoustics -> may require more HF gain

1500

Intermittend hearing aid function

battery contact corrosion or issues, loose wiring, moisture damage

1500

When can you fit a patient who refuses a medical evaluation

only if they sign a waiver and have no red flags