SSTI
GI Pathogens
ENT & Respiratory
GU & STIs
Systemic, Vector & HIV
200

The causative organism for a wound with "fruity" odor, often seen in burn patients or puncture wounds through a sneaker

What is Pseudomonas aeruginosa? 

200

The most likely diagnosis for a patient with "rice water stools" and severe dehydration. 

What is cholera (vibrio cholerae)?

200

A gray pseudomembrane on the posterior pharynx that bleeds if scraped is pathognomonic for this infection. 

What is diphtheria? 

200
A painless chancre is the hallmark primary lesions of this STI. 

What is syphilis? 

200

A target or "bullseye" rash (erythema migrans) is the pathognomonic early sign of this tick-borne disease. 

What is lyme disease?

400

A patient with a history of a cat scratch presenting with regional lymphadenopathy has an infection caused by this organism. 

What is Bartonella henselae?

400

This parasite causes foul-smelling, greasy stools and is often associated with drinking from mountain streams (camping). 

What is Giardia lamblia? 

400

The Centor Criteria (fever, exudates, tender anterior adenopathy, no cough) are used to estimate the probability of this infection. 

What is Group A strep pharyngitis? 

400

The physical exam finding of a "strawberry cervix" (punctate hemorrhage) is associated with this flagellated protozan. 

What is trichomonas vaginalis? 

400
A rash that begins on the wrists and ankles (palms/soles) and spreads centrally is classic for this rickettsial infection. 

What is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? 

600
Diagnosis for this fungal infection involving the skin folds (intertrigo) is confirmed by a KOH prep showing budding yeast/hyphae

What is Candidiasis (candida)? 

600

A patient with "pea soup" diarrhea and rose spots on the trunk likely  has this specific infection. 

What is Typhoid Fever (salmonella typhi)?

600

An HIV patient with a CD4 count <200 presenting with hypoxia and diffuse infiltrates likely has this fungal pneumonia. 

What is pneuocystis jirovecii (PCP)?

600

This is the preferred diagnostic test (Gold Standard) for both gonorrhea and chlamydia. 

What is NAAT (nucleic acid amplification test)?

600

Prophylaxis with TMP-SMX (Bactrim) is initiated in an HIV patient when the CD4 count drops below this number. 

What is 200 (cells/mm3)?

800

This gram-positive group A cocci is the most common cause of erysipelas and can progress to necrotizing fasciitis.

What is streptococcus pyogenes (GABHS)?

800

This bacterial cause of bloody diarrhea is a known precipitant of Guillain-Barre Syndrome. 

What is campylobacter jejuni? 

800

Exposure to bat or bird droppings in the Ohio/Mississippi River Valleys suggests this fungal cause of pneumonia. 

What is histoplasmosis? 

800

Painful, fluid-filled vesicles on an erythematous base are classic for this viral infection. 

What is herpes simplex virus (HSV)?

800

Diagnosis of this mosquito-borne disease is confirmed by visualizing parasites on a Giemsa-stained blood smear (thick and thin). 

What is malaria? 

1000

The classic "honey-colored crust" seen in impetigo is most commonly caused by this bacteria. 

What is staphyloccus aureus? 

1000

Diagnosis of this antibiotic-associated diarrhea requires a stool test for Toxin A and B. 

What is Clostridioides difficile (C. diff)?

1000

Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture is the gold standard diagnosis for this cavitary lung disease. 

What is tuberculosis (TB)?

1000

These two HPV types are responsible for 90% of genital warts (condyloma acuminata). 

What are HPV type 6 and 11?

1000

If the HIV screening ELISA is positive, this specific test is performed next to confirm the diagnosis and differentiate HIV-1 from HIV-2. 

What is the HIV-1/2 differential assay?