Holding
Instrument Approach Charts
DP & STAR
GPS Approaches
IFR Altitudes
100
A pilot receives this ATC clearance:
“...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...”
The pilot is coming in on R-240
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A. Parallel only.
B. Direct only.
C. Teardrop only.
B. Direct only.
100
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
A. Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
B. Use Category B minimums.
C. Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.
A. Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
100
Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
A. The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory.
B. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure.
C. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure.
B. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure.
100
When flying the LNAV approach on the RNAV RWY 30 at LBF, the missed approach point (MAP) would be indicated by reaching
A. an altitude of 3,120 feet.
B. a distance of 0.9 NM to RW30.
C. the RW30 waypoint.
C. the RW30 waypoint.
100
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage is the
A. MEA.
B. MRA.
C. MOCA.
A. MEA.
200
A pilot receives this ATC clearance:
“...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...”
The aircraft is coming in from the southwest (R-240)
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A. Teardrop only.
B. Direct only.
C. Parallel only.
B. Direct only.
200
The threshold elevation for landing on RWY 28R at BIL is
A. 4,260 feet MSL.
B. 3,488 feet MSL.
C. 3,940 feet MSL.
B. 3,488 feet MSL.
200
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
A. DP’s, STAR’s, and contact approaches.
B. Contact and visual approaches.
C. DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches.
C. DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches.
200
How does a pilot recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV/VNAV approach RWY 30 at LBF?
A. At the RW30 waypoint.
B. At the Decision Altitude (DA) for the LPV portion of this approach.
C. Arrival at the LNAV/VNAV Decision Altitude (DA).
C. Arrival at the LNAV/VNAV Decision Altitude (DA).
200
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
A. 12 NM.
B. 22 NM.
C. 25 NM.
B. 22 NM.
300
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made
A. at pilot’s discretion.
B. only in an emergency.
C. only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
C. only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
300
What is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) when maneuvering northeast of APA?
A. 13,100 feet.
B. 8,100 feet.
C. 7,080 feet.
B. 8,100 feet.
300
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
A. Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.
B. Advise departure control upon initial contact.
C. Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
C. Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
300
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
A. an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
B. authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics systems.
C. a GPS approach that is anticipated to be operational and available at the ETA.
A. an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
300
If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?
A. The MEA at which the fix is approached.
B. The MRA at which the fix is approached.
C. The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.
A. The MEA at which the fix is approached.
400
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
A. When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions.
B. When flying in VFR conditions above clouds.
C. When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance.
C. When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance.
400
The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 at FFC procedure is
A. 2:33 from PECAT.
B. 200 feet AGL.
C. 1,081 feet MSL.
A. 2:33 from PECAT.
400
If a pilot takes off from RWY 34L, or RWY 34R at RNO with minimum weather, which of the following is the minimum acceptable rate of climb (feet per minute) to 8,700 feet required for the RENO9.FMG departure at a GS of 150 knots?
A. 960 feet per minute.
B. 1,200 feet per minute.
C. 430 feet per minute.
B. 1,200 feet per minute.
400
While executing the RNAV (GPS) RWY 18 LNAV approach at OSH, how would the missed approach point be identified?
A. RW18 waypoint.
B. 1.1 NM from RW18 waypoint.
C. 1,040 feet MSL indicated.
A. RW18 waypoint.
400
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of
A. 500 feet above the highest obstacle.
B. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
C. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
C. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
500
In the event of two-way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions, the pilot should continue
A. by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
B. the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
C. the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
B. the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
500
If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, that means
A. a procedure turn is not authorized.
B. the pilot should fly a teardrop entry.
C. a racetrack-type turn is required.
A. a procedure turn is not authorized.
500
Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited?
A. In Class A airspace.
B. During off-airways direct flights.
C. When flying through Class B airspace.
A. In Class A airspace.
500
What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?
A. Even thousand-foot levels.
B. Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
C. Odd thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
B. Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
500
What altitude may a pilot on an IFR flight plan select upon receiving a VFR-on-Top clearance?
A. Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above or 1,000 feet below the meteorological condition.
B. Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.
C. Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 500 feet above the meteorological condition.
B. Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.