Security Plan
Business Impact Analysis
CP & CPT
Configuration Management Plan (CMP)
Security Control Assessments
SCA Automation
FedRAMP at USCIS
Disposition Process
POA&Ms, Waivers & Accepted Risks
Ongoing Authorization and Continuous Monitoring
Vulnerability & Configuration Management
System Management
100

This document lists the security controls in place or planned for a system to meet its security requirements. It serves as a comprehensive guide for managing system security throughout its lifecycle, ensuring compliance with applicable standards and regulations, and providing a clear understanding of the system's security posture. 

What is the System Security Plan?

100

This is the purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA).

What is: To correlate the system with critical mission/business processes and characterize consequences of disruption or identify and evaluate the potential effects of disruptions to critical business operations due to emergencies, disasters, or other unexpected events?

100

_____ is the primary purpose of a Contingency Plan.

What is To establish procedures to recover the system following a disruption?

100

____ is the purpose of a Configuration Management Plan (CMP)

What is:

To provide guidelines and establish processes for controlling changes to a system without impacting security?

100

_____ is the first phase in the SCA Process

What is Phase I: Preparation?

100

This is what CCI stands for ________.

What is Continuous Compliance Insight?

100

This is what FedRAMP stands for______.

What is the Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program?

100

______ is the purpose of the USCIS FISMA Disposition Process training session.

What is 

To provide ISSOs with a high-level overview of the USCIS FISMA Inventory Disposition process?

100

This is the default timeframe for remediating System-Level POA&Ms.

What is: To remediate within 12-months?

100

______ is a process within the Risk Management Framework (RMF) used to ensure that information systems maintain an acceptable security posture throughout their lifecycle

What is Ongoing Authorization?

100

Which tool is primarily used for vulnerability identification and prioritization.

What is Tenable.io?

100

This is the primary purpose of the Splunk dashboards walkthrough. 

What is to:

assist ISSOs in leveraging dashboards for continuous monitoring and providing actionable insights?

200

These items are included in Section 1 of the SP. (Name at least 4 items.)

What are the: Boundary/Purpose, Authorization Boundary Diagrams, Inventory, Interconnections, Points of Contact/System Stakeholders.

200

These are the three categories used to assess impacts in a BIA.

What are Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability?

200

A _____ is a structured communication tool used to quickly disseminate information and to verify the effectiveness and reliability of an organization's emergency communication plan.

What is a Call Tree Exercise?

200

This system is used for enterprise change management at USCIS.

What is ServiceNow?

200

This element was added to the SCA implementation to elevate the depth of assessments

What is Penetration Testing?

200

These are the layers CCI analyzes.

What are the OS, DB, INF, and potentially APP layers?

200

This is the year FedRAMP was established.

When is 2011?

200

These are the final steps of the SDLC process.

What are Decommission and Disposal?

200

These are the two main types of POA&Ms

What are: Program-Level POA&Ms and System-Level POA&Ms?

200

These are the two types of assessments used in Ongoing Authorization.

What are: 

Time-driven assessments and Event-driven assessments?

200

This is the remediation timeline for critical vulnerabilities on internet-facing systems

What is 15 days?


200

______ tracks, monitors, scans, and adjusts assets assigned to all FISMA boundaries in USCIS

What is Asset Manager?

300

This individual is responsible for authoring changes in the SP Document Change History Table.

Who is the ISSO/AISSO?

300

The Loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability could have a limited adverse effect on operations, assets, or individuals is the definition of which impact.

What is Low Impact?

300

This federal guidance document requires every information system to include a Contingency Plan and Contingency Plan Test in its security package

What is the Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems NIST SP 800-34?

300

Name 2 of 4 tools mentioned in the CMP template that supports configuration management functions.

What are:

Jira, Confluence, Git, or Chef?

300

_____  is the primary purpose of Security Control Assessments (SCA). (Name at least 2 of 4)

What is to:

  1. Verification of Implementation: Ensuring that security controls are implemented as described in the system's security plan.
  2. Effectiveness Testing: Assessing whether the controls are functioning as intended to mitigate risks.
  3. Identification of Weaknesses: Highlighting deficiencies or vulnerabilities in the system's security posture.
  4. Supporting Risk Decisions: Providing evidence-based findings to support risk management decisions, including system authorization

 

300

CCI has integrations with the _________ system to sync controls, POA&Ms, and other security information.

What is the DHS IACS or CSAM?

300

______ is the FedRAMP's philosophy.

What is 'Do once, use many'?

300

This must be done with active Minor Applications or Subsystems during Major/GSS System Dispositions.

What is:

They must either be disposed with the parent system or transitioned to another parent system?

300

______ of a POA&M is required, for a POA&M to be closed, with relation to remediation.

What is:

All weaknesses described in the POA&M must be 100% remediated?

300

_______ is the minimum percentage required for Vulnerability Management metrics for OA entry

What is 85%?

300

This ISVM category requires immediate action due to critical vulnerabilities.

What is an ISVM-A and KEV? 

300

_______ is a SaaS that provides actionable and accurate data to identify, investigate, and prioritize vulnerabilities and misconfigurations in USCIS systems

What is Tenable.io?

400

________ is declaration that describes the: who, what, when, where, and how a requirement is 'carried out'.

What is an implementation statement?

400

_______ is the largest amount of time that a system, process, or business function can be unavailable or disrupted without causing significant harm to the organization.

What is Maximum Tolerable Downtime?

400

To simulate a real-world disruption and assess the CP's effectiveness comprehensively is better known as _________.

What is a Full-Scale Simulation?

400

_____ is the minimum frequency for reviewing or updating the CMP at USCIS

What is:

Every three years or with any significant change?

400

During Phase II of the SCA process, this meeting is conducted to initiate the assessment

What is the SCA Kick-Off Meeting?

400

This is the purpose of the USCIS Continuous Compliance Insight (CCI)

What is: 

To provide enhanced insight into system compliance posture and expedite security control assessments?

400

This entity serves as the primary decision-making body for FedRAMP and grants Provisional Authorizations to cloud service providers.

What is the Joint Authorization Board (JAB)?



400

This must be closed prior to submission to SNOW for Major/GSS System Dispositions

What is Close All POA&Ms?

400

These are the key items are included in POA&M Quality Checks. (Name at least 5).

What are:

Title, Weakness Description/Root Cause, Criticality Level, Cost, Responsible POC, Scheduled Completion Date, Planned Start and Finish Date, Actual Start Dates, Associated Security and Privacy Controls, Milestones?

400

These are the Key components of ongoing authorization. (Name at least 3 of 5.)

What are: 

  1. Continuous Monitoring: Regularly assessing the effectiveness of security controls, identifying vulnerabilities, and ensuring compliance with applicable policies and standards.

  2. Risk Management: Continuously evaluating risks and making informed decisions about whether the system remains authorized to operate based on its current security posture.

  3. Automation: Using tools and technologies to automate the collection, analysis, and reporting of security-related information to improve efficiency and accuracy.

  4. Documentation Updates: Keeping security documentation, such as the System Security Plan (SSP), up to date to reflect changes in the system or its environment.

  5. Stakeholder Involvement: Ensuring that system owners, security personnel, and authorizing officials are actively engaged in the process to make timely decisions about the system's authorization status.

400

This directive focuses on reducing the risk of Known Exploited Vulnerabilities (KEVs)

What is CISA Binding Operational Directive (BOD) 22-01?

400

A-123 assessments test for these 2 types of methods.

What are:

Test of Design and

Test of Effectiveness?

500

These are the steps to write an effective implementation statement. (Name at least 4 methods)

What are: Understand the control requirement, use clear language, describe 4W1H, align with system context, include supporting details, ensure compliance, review and revise, and use a structured format?

500

_____ is the overall length of time an information system’s components can be in the restoration phase before negatively impacting the organization’s mission or mission/business processes.

What is Recovery Time Objective?

500

______ phase is the stage in continuity planning where an organization transitions back to normal operations after a disruption or emergency. 

What is the Reconstitution Phase?

500

These are the four types of changes described in the CMP template.

Emergency, Major, Minor, and Optional

500

This document is provided to stakeholders during Phase III of the SCA process

What is the Security Assessment Report (SAR) and security deliverables?

500

_____, _____, ______, ______, and ______ is what the CCI Dashboard provides for compliance analysis

What are: Drill-down insight, multi-view, trends, scoring, and stack analysis?

500

These are the minimum set of artifacts to be reviewed annually for FedRAMP systems at USCIS. (Name 3 of 4)

What are the: Penetration Test Report, Vulnerability Scan Results, System Security Plan, Significant Change Requests?

500

These are the key aspects of the Decommission and Disposal process. (Name at least 3)

What are to:

Complete shutdown of environments, tracking keys/licenses, documenting hardware/media disposal, and data archival/removal/transfer?

500

A POA&M Must be submitted ____ days prior to the scheduled completion date, include timeline of events, remediation actions, and escalations. 

What is 90 days?

500

Name the main reason a system may be placed into OA probation.

What are:

Repeated failure to meet ISPP goals for ISCM metrics or failure to address significant POA&Ms?

500

These are the three groups of enterprise-level exceptions.

What are: 

Group A: Settings that Cannot be implemented enterprise-wide

Group B: Settings that cam be implemented but Requires remediation, 

Group C: Settings  that cannot be implemented at the enterprise-level but must be Evaluated by system teams?

500

The _____ model is used to centrally manage permissions for users across 100+ AWS accounts.

What is the Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) model?